A Spanish "Canada"?

No, not in that sense. Rather, is it possible for one of Spain's major American holdings - a country-sized region, or even a whole viceroyalty - to remain loyal to the Spanish Empire while all others break away during the revolutions of the early 19th century?* This could be brought about by a lack of enthusiasm for independence, or the victory of loyalist factions in the revolutionary wars, but is it possible to have a Spanish "dominion" somewhere in America existing alongside independent republics, and eventually forming an arrangement with Spain similar to the OTL UK-Canada one? Or would it even make it to that stage? How long could such a polity plausibly last?

*the OTL cases of Santo Domingo, Cuba, and Puerto Rico notwithstanding
 

Deleted member 67076

Peru can fit the bill if you somehow can get the Colombians to stop attacking it.
 
It was possible for most of Spanish America (New Spain) if Spain had conceded "Home Rule" over the colonies after the Napoleonic Wars.

Most of the "Wars of Independence" were in fact civil wars between Royalists and Republicans. Spain wasn't able to send much of a presence. They were in too poor shape.

Beyond generally supporting the conservatives, the Monarchy didn't do much beyond pissing off the masses.

If the King had agreed to set up local rule under a local autocracy, this might have let off enough pressure from the kettle to prevent most of the destructive wars and coups de'tats endemic to latin america during the 19th and 20th centuries.

A royal presense might have evened things out just enough between liberals and conservatives to keep the worst of the unrest from breaking out.

A unified latin america was impossible for racial, cultural, economic and geographic factors but a functioning customs union, freer trade, open emigration, etc might have benefited all.
 
Didn't Argentina stay loyal to the Spanish Crown longer than the other Latin American nations? They might be a good candidate for a Spanish Canada
 
It was possible for most of Spanish America (New Spain) if Spain had conceded "Home Rule" over the colonies after the Napoleonic Wars.

Most of the "Wars of Independence" were in fact civil wars between Royalists and Republicans. Spain wasn't able to send much of a presence. They were in too poor shape.

Beyond generally supporting the conservatives, the Monarchy didn't do much beyond pissing off the masses.

If the King had agreed to set up local rule under a local autocracy, this might have let off enough pressure from the kettle to prevent most of the destructive wars and coups de'tats endemic to latin america during the 19th and 20th centuries.

A royal presense might have evened things out just enough between liberals and conservatives to keep the worst of the unrest from breaking out.

A unified latin america was impossible for racial, cultural, economic and geographic factors but a functioning customs union, freer trade, open emigration, etc might have benefited all.

So if the Royalist factions had been more successful, or came to some sort of compromise solution with the Republicans? Something similar to Iturbide's Mexican Empire, but more stable and popular?
 
Didn't Argentina stay loyal to the Spanish Crown longer than the other Latin American nations? They might be a good candidate for a Spanish Canada

Yes, they did. And, to be perfectly honest, people do often significantly overestimate just how loyal Peru, as a whole, really was to Spain in the early 19th century.
 
So if the Royalist factions had been more successful, or came to some sort of compromise solution with the Republicans? Something similar to Iturbide's Mexican Empire, but more stable and popular?

Alot of the rebek Republicans weren't natural Republicans but colonial elites that were excluded from real power.

This is very similar to the "Founding Fathers" of the United States' first Congress.

If Spain had basically delegated local rule to these persons, most would obviously never have rebelled, eliminating the leaders of these rebellions. American-style one-man/one-vote democracy was way off (and not a terribly idea even among the lower classes) but this would have prevented many of the elites and religious leaders from rebelling. Also, New Spain's economic policies were backward (mercantilist trade, etc) and could only be improved with local rule. Freer trade with less bureacracy would ease off some of the simmering economic tension.
 
No, not in that sense. Rather, is it possible for one of Spain's major American holdings - a country-sized region, or even a whole viceroyalty - to remain loyal to the Spanish Empire while all others break away during the revolutions of the early 19th century?* This could be brought about by a lack of enthusiasm for independence, or the victory of loyalist factions in the revolutionary wars, but is it possible to have a Spanish "dominion" somewhere in America existing alongside independent republics, and eventually forming an arrangement with Spain similar to the OTL UK-Canada one? Or would it even make it to that stage? How long could such a polity plausibly last?

*the OTL cases of Santo Domingo, Cuba, and Puerto Rico notwithstanding

perhaps the Philippines?
 
Didn't Argentina stay loyal to the Spanish Crown longer than the other Latin American nations? They might be a good candidate for a Spanish Canada

Which was why they had the Bourbon floors on their flag, or so I hear. The issue here however is how did not see themselves tied by country as much as dynasty, which was why Napoleon having cheated their dynasty out of Louisinaa by giving then taking back Tuscany, followed by the invasion of Spain and overthrow of a monarchy that supported French by the French was a bit too much. They had no King at that point, as far as they were concerned.
 
Mexico could stay Spanish if the Liberal takeover is avoided

Peru could stay Spanish if Bolivar's invasion was repulsed like the many ones before it
 
No, not in that sense. Rather, is it possible for one of Spain's major American holdings - a country-sized region, or even a whole viceroyalty - to remain loyal to the Spanish Empire while all others break away during the revolutions of the early 19th century?* This could be brought about by a lack of enthusiasm for independence, or the victory of loyalist factions in the revolutionary wars, but is it possible to have a Spanish "dominion" somewhere in America existing alongside independent republics, and eventually forming an arrangement with Spain similar to the OTL UK-Canada one? Or would it even make it to that stage? How long could such a polity plausibly last?

*the OTL cases of Santo Domingo, Cuba, and Puerto Rico notwithstanding

Quibble: Santo Domingo declared independence from Spain in 1821 (only to be quickly invaded and annexed by Haiti). Only Cuba and PR remained loyal to Spain.
 
Quibble: Santo Domingo declared independence from Spain in 1821 (only to be quickly invaded and annexed by Haiti). Only Cuba and PR remained loyal to Spain.

Except that Qhahaq Inka was referring to the 1861 voluntary restoration of colonial rule by Spain. If you plan on being pedantic, do try to understand what point or meaning someone is trying to get across.
 
Except that Qhahaq Inka was referring to the 1861 voluntary restoration of colonial rule by Spain. If you plan on being pedantic, do try to understand what point or meaning someone is trying to get across.

The OP says "Rather, is it possible for one of Spain's major American holdings - a country-sized region, or even a whole viceroyalty - to remain loyal to the Spanish Empire while all others break away during the revolutions of the early 19th century?

1861 was not the early 19th century. Santo Domingo launched its own revolution during that period. It was no more loyal to Spain to any other part of the empire.

Besides, the 1861 restoration was not intended to be permanent anyway, just a temporary move to protect the country from another Haitian invasion while the United States was unable to do anything, due to its Civil War.
 
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