A Son for Karolina Ludwika Radziwill

Ludwika Karolina Radziwill was married twice, first to Ludwig of Brandenburg - youngest son of the Great Elector from his first marriage - and then to Karl Philipp, the future Elector Palatine. However, the first marriage produced no issue (much to her father-in-law's disappointment) and the second marriage produced three girls - Leopoldine (1689-1693), Maria Anna (1690-1692) and Elisabeth Sophie (b. 1693) - and a son who died at birth in 1695.

Now what if she had been pregnant with a posthumous son of her first husband, or the son from her second marriage had survived to have children of his own? As the sole heiress to the Radziwill Estates of the Calvinist line, she made for a rather fetching bride, and by my understanding of it (which could be wrong, admittedly) any son of hers would also be the holder of said estates once she died. What effects might this have on the future of the PLC, as well as the dynasty to which the boy belongs (Wittelsbach or Hohenzollern)?
 
An interesting thing with large part of Grand Duchy of Lithuania becoming the "Neuburg enclave" for longer than OTL. Hohenzollern son will mean one more sourse for tension between Poland and Brandenburg-Prussia as the nephew of King in Prussia becomes major landowner of Grand Duchy of Lithuania.
 
An interesting thing with large part of Grand Duchy of Lithuania becoming the "Neuburg enclave" for longer than OTL. Hohenzollern son will mean one more sourse for tension between Poland and Brandenburg-Prussia as the nephew of King in Prussia becomes major landowner of Grand Duchy of Lithuania.

How did the inheritance work in any case? Because in theory then it would've descended to the kings of Bavaria or to her Radziwill cousins (related to the Sobieskis), but I've never read that anything of the sort happened.
 
How did the inheritance work in any case? Because in theory then it would've descended to the kings of Bavaria or to her Radziwill cousins (related to the Sobieskis), but I've never read that anything of the sort happened.

The court ruled in favor of her estates going to her daughter over her Radzivill cousin (nephew of Jan III) and the so-called "Neuburg enclave" existed till the 1770ies in the large territory of GDL (including the Duchy of Slutsk, the region my family comes from). That was basically a state within a state, with its own laws on many things (like increased tolerance to non-Catholics).
 
The court ruled in favor of her estates going to her daughter over her Radzivill cousin (nephew of Jan III) and the so-called "Neuburg enclave" existed till the 1770ies in the large territory of GDL (including the Duchy of Slutsk, the region my family comes from). That was basically a state within a state, with its own laws on many things (like increased tolerance to non-Catholics).

Wasn't there some or other court case about a supposed forged pre-contract to Jakub Sobieski and Karolina Radziwill as well?

Were her heirs ever recompensated for loss of territory/income? I know the Württemberger prince who became Mindaugas II of Lithuania was somehow a descendant of hers, but I don't remember ever reading that there was any form of recompense at the time. And why was the enclave lost? Partitions of Poland?
 
Wasn't there some or other court case about a supposed forged pre-contract to Jakub Sobieski and Karolina Radziwill as well?

Were her heirs ever recompensated for loss of territory/income? I know the Württemberger prince who became Mindaugas II of Lithuania was somehow a descendant of hers, but I don't remember ever reading that there was any form of recompense at the time. And why was the enclave lost? Partitions of Poland?

The main branch of Radziwills repurchased it into its possession, so the compensation existed in the form of money. The deal happened in 1744 (I misguided you unwillingly not doing the recheck and thinking it was 1774).

And the court case was lost because of Austrian influence. Not to mention the fact that nobody among great magnates was excited about the King getting such a powerbase.
 
The main branch of Radziwills repurchased it into its possession, so the compensation existed in the form of money. The deal happened in 1744 (I misguided you unwillingly not doing the recheck and thinking it was 1774).

And the court case was lost because of Austrian influence. Not to mention the fact that nobody among great magnates was excited about the King getting such a powerbase.

The court case was due to the forgery indicating that the date of the marriage predated the date of the pre-contract - or some such.

If she had a son by her first marriage - i.e. a Hohenzollern - would she feel the need to remarry? Or would she be content to remain in Königsberg or Berlin as an unmarried widow?

And also, from what I can make out from the German wiki, Ludwig of Brandenburg was spending a lot of time near Utrecht during their marriage. Does anyone know what this was for? And if it indicates non-consumation?
 
If one reads the German wiki on Ludwig it also says that he was rumored to have been poisoned by a niece of his stepmother, Dorothea of Glucksburg. But it makes no mention of which niece was suspected.

It could be an interesting subject of play at some point of Ludwig, Princess Radziwill, the unnamed niece, the Sobieskis being the antagonists in the play, perhaps spurring the unnamed niece on to poison Ludwig before an heir is produced. Sorry, but I just have a morbid sense of humor.
 
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