Just earlier this week I read an Ospery book about the battle of France in which the author suggested that an important reason for the German sucess in 1940. was the experience gained from fighting in Poland. So that made me wonder; is there any way the Germans could achieve such a victory in France either in 1939. or 1940. if there was no war against Poland?
For the sake of argument, lets assume the billigrents went to war over something else, and that they can commit at least the ammount of forces they did IOTL. Can it happen?