A question on the battle of France.

Just earlier this week I read an Ospery book about the battle of France in which the author suggested that an important reason for the German sucess in 1940. was the experience gained from fighting in Poland. So that made me wonder; is there any way the Germans could achieve such a victory in France either in 1939. or 1940. if there was no war against Poland?

For the sake of argument, lets assume the billigrents went to war over something else, and that they can commit at least the ammount of forces they did IOTL. Can it happen?
 
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Cook

Banned
Their armoured warfare doctrine had been worked out well before then. The experience with the occupation of Austria and Czechoslovakia proved invaluable in coordinating the movement of the Panzer divisions through the narrower roads of the Ardennes. The coordination of the armoured units and air forces had likewise been developed prior to Poland. Poland was a proving ground and certainly improved the German’s confidence, possibly they would not have been prepared to gamble on Manstein’s plan but the actual concepts and training applied in the attack on the west were all already there.
 
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