This is a question that was raised in my mind after posting on another thread (the "What If Hitler Really Went After Britain" one)
A couple of posters have said to me that Stalin intended to or would have attacked Germany if Germany hadn't attacked him first. I wanted the smart kids in the room to stand up and help me out here...
Is there any historical or other evidence that indicates that, if Hitler had stuck with the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, at least for a reasonable space of time (say, 2 or 3 more years than he did in OTL, for whatever reason) that Stalin would have had the Red Army launch an invasion of Germany?
For whatever reason-and very possibly I'm wrong-I had operated under the impression that Stalin was happy with the arrangements as they stood.
Nazi Germany was one the USSR's major trading partner and was borrowing Soviet monies pretty heavily, after all. But I could be very wrong-which is why I'm looking for some response from people who's depth of knowledge of the period might be greater than mine. Thankee!
A couple of posters have said to me that Stalin intended to or would have attacked Germany if Germany hadn't attacked him first. I wanted the smart kids in the room to stand up and help me out here...
Is there any historical or other evidence that indicates that, if Hitler had stuck with the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, at least for a reasonable space of time (say, 2 or 3 more years than he did in OTL, for whatever reason) that Stalin would have had the Red Army launch an invasion of Germany?
For whatever reason-and very possibly I'm wrong-I had operated under the impression that Stalin was happy with the arrangements as they stood.
Nazi Germany was one the USSR's major trading partner and was borrowing Soviet monies pretty heavily, after all. But I could be very wrong-which is why I'm looking for some response from people who's depth of knowledge of the period might be greater than mine. Thankee!