A post-Norman England with a stronger Germanic identity

Is there a way where the French influences into the English language and English culture brought on by the Norman invasion could be lessened by new Germanic influences in language and culture? Perhaps by some sort of English political and economic entanglement into the affairs of the Netherlands, Germany and or Scandinavia?
 
It's not going to be that easy : even before the Norman conquest, you did have a relatively strong French influence in late Anglo-Saxon England. Even if Norman power is somehow crushed by the Anglo-Scandinavian operation of 1069 or the Anglo-Scottish one in 1070, French influence is more or less bound to happen, and not only because of Anglo-Norman nobles being largely tied to continental holdings and lineages.

It could be counter-balanced, tough : whatever the reason, you could see an earlier and deeper relation with northern-western HRE. Late Anglo-Saxon England already had ties with Saxony that could be deepened if an Anglo-German dynasty somehow succeed Normans (instead of, say, Plantagenêts). But I stress "counter-balanced" : France is simply too big and too close to be ignored as a cultural influence in England at this point.
 
I've contemplated several time if the the English for some whatever unlikely reason accepted William as king their would actually be a stronger Anglo-Saxon culture. The reasoning would be an accepted William I would mean that he wouldn't have actually invaded, he probably would have appointed several nobles to keep tabs on thing and then if they didn't revolt then the cultural diffusion would have been slower. Basically, if there was no unrest why would he care what the commoners and lesser nobles were doing.
 

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Is there a way where the French influences into the English language and English culture brought on by the Norman invasion could be lessened by new Germanic influences in language and culture? Perhaps by some sort of English political and economic entanglement into the affairs of the Netherlands, Germany and or Scandinavia?
Rather than by new Germanic influences, how about a reduced French influence by the Normans conquering Normandy later, and therefore having less time to "go native" (and therefore remaining more Germanic) before invading England in 1066?
 
Your best bet might be a separation of England. The southern part was already, prior to 1066, absorbing French/Norman influence, and reducing this might be an uphill struggle. The north of the country, but contrast, was less French and more Scandinavian influence (the old Danelaw business).

Stuck in the middle of them, you've got what is basically (gross oversimplification following) the Anglian regions.

If you somehow (and it is left as an exercise for someone else exactly how) end up with a Norman dominated south, a Scandinavian dominated north, and Mercia and Anglia as a sort of buffer between them, you might keep strong Germanic influences in the middle bit. Maybe Harald wins at Stamford Bridge, and neither William nor Harald can gain an advantage over each other, and end up dividing the country between them. Shortly after, the midlands rebel, and neither Harald nor William are happy for the other to send a large force into the area to tread on the rebellion. Rebellion sort of successful, and survives by constantly playing Northumbria against Wessex and living in no-mans-land.
 
It's not going to be that easy : even before the Norman conquest, you did have a relatively strong French influence in late Anglo-Saxon England. Even if Norman power is somehow crushed by the Anglo-Scandinavian operation of 1069 or the Anglo-Scottish one in 1070, French influence is more or less bound to happen, and not only because of Anglo-Norman nobles being largely tied to continental holdings and lineages.

It could be counter-balanced, tough : whatever the reason, you could see an earlier and deeper relation with northern-western HRE. Late Anglo-Saxon England already had ties with Saxony that could be deepened if an Anglo-German dynasty somehow succeed Normans (instead of, say, Plantagenêts). But I stress "counter-balanced" : France is simply too big and too close to be ignored as a cultural influence in England at this point
Your best bet might be a separation of England. The southern part was already, prior to 1066, absorbing French/Norman influence, and reducing this might be an uphill struggle. The north of the country, but contrast, was less French and more Scandinavian influence (the old Danelaw business).

Stuck in the middle of them, you've got what is basically (gross oversimplification following) the Anglian regions.

If you somehow (and it is left as an exercise for someone else exactly how) end up with a Norman dominated south, a Scandinavian dominated north, and Mercia and Anglia as a sort of buffer between them, you might keep strong Germanic influences in the middle bit. Maybe Harald wins at Stamford Bridge, and neither William nor Harald can gain an advantage over each other, and end up dividing the country between them. Shortly after, the midlands rebel, and neither Harald nor William are happy for the other to send a large force into the area to tread on the rebellion. Rebellion sort of successful, and survives by constantly playing Northumbria against Wessex and living in no-mans-land.

My post wasn't on the possibility of removing French influence entirely or even removing the Norman rule over England, but rather of England post-Norman rule developing a largely Germanic culture.

A Scandinavian-influenced Northern England emerging is an interesting idea though.
 
Have Empress Matilda have sons by Henry V, Holy Roman Emperor? A cadet Salian line of German kings of England that lasts at least as long as the OTL Plantagenets? :p
 
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