A Portugueser Royal Title Question....

So I was pocking around on Wikipedia and saw something odd. Male Consorts of Portuguese Queens are automatically become co-rulers with the own regal numbers after they father a male child. Is there a reason for this? I mean besides William and Mary I can't find any other semi-modern examples of this happening.
 
So I was pocking around on Wikipedia and saw something odd. Male Consorts of Portuguese Queens are automatically become co-rulers with the own regal numbers after they father a male child. Is there a reason for this? I mean besides William and Mary I can't find any other semi-modern examples of this happening.

The Kings of Jerusalem often held the title by right of their wife, and the idea of a crown matrimonial was flirted with re: Mary Queen of Scots twice. I think consorts in Navarre may also have taken the royal title, and certainly throughout the Middle Ages men considered themselves the proprietors of their wives inheritance - see how both Louis of France and Henry II considered themselves Duke of Aquitaine and pressed their wife's claim to Toulouse as if it was their own.
 
The Kings of Jerusalem often held the title by right of their wife, and the idea of a crown matrimonial was flirted with re: Mary Queen of Scots twice.

Thats not really a modern example. The Kingdom of Jerusalem fell in 1291. And even though it was flirted with Mary Queen of Scots never had a co-ruler. Even Francis II was considered a King-consort, not a Co-ruler.
 
Thats not really a modern example. The Kingdom of Jerusalem fell in 1291. And even though it was flirted with Mary Queen of Scots never had a co-ruler. Even Francis II was considered a King-consort, not a Co-ruler.

Ferdinand II of Aragon was also jure uxoris King of Castile; Philip II of Spain was also King of England jure uxoris as Philip I and the Scottish Crown Matrimonial of Francis II (if he really had it confirmed) make him King of Scotland jure uxoris as Francis I (the title of King consort was another thing, established already in the marriage contract and effective from the wedding) and also gave him the title for all his life and the possibility of pass the Scottish Crown also to his children from another wife than Mary.
 
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So I was pocking around on Wikipedia and saw something odd. Male Consorts of Portuguese Queens are automatically become co-rulers with the own regal numbers after they father a male child. Is there a reason for this? I mean besides William and Mary I can't find any other semi-modern examples of this happening.

They were not co-rulers. By the Constitution (and by practise before that) the parliament could bestow the title of king to the husband of the queen regnant, just as long as he had already sired a child with the queen.

That's why Maria II's first husband (Auguste de Beauharnais) never got to be king but the second husband was only proclaimed king Fernando II after the birth of the couple's first child.

That pompous title didn't make them co-rulers. Pedro III (husband of Maria I) and Fernando II were for all effects and purposes just prince consorts with all that entails.
 
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