A few questions about (the end of) the Viking Age

Around Harald Hardrada's time, what did the people of Norway/Vikings call Norway, Sweden, Denmark, England, Scotland, Ireland and France?

I found Noregr, Svitjod, Danemark, and Danelagh, but I don't know if those are right and I don't know about Scotland, Ireland and France.

Also, was France wasn't unified yet was it? I know it had a capet king.
 
United, but not its modern size or with royal authority clearly established over all the lords - more first among equals than absolute monarch.
 
In fact, I'd say that the reigns of Henry I and early Philip I were the weakest times for Capetian Kings before the Plantagenets.
 

Delvestius

Banned
I found Noregr, Svitjod, Danemark, and Danelagh, but I don't know if those are right and I don't know about Scotland, Ireland and France.

Scotland was Skotland, Ireland was Irland, England was... England. The Norse wouldn't have referred the to the place under Danish control as Danelaw, that was just what the Anglos called it. Their name for the region was Jorvik (York), using the city to describe the surrounding countryside. The Kingdom of the Hebrides Islands was called Sudhrejar. Orkney and Shetland, typically under direct control of Norway, were just Orkney and Shetland. I think France was Francia, with the [c] sounding like a [ch].

EDIT: The Early kingdom of the Swedish warrior Rurik, based around Novgorod was called Holmgardhr, Kiev was just Kiev. Constantinople was known as Miklagardhr.
 
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I found Noregr, Svitjod, Danemark, and Danelagh, but I don't know if those are right and I don't know about Scotland, Ireland and France.
Danelagh isn't the name for England, more the part that was controlled by Danes. There was a discussion about norse name of England some times ago, and the consensus seems to have been that it would have probably been close to the anglo-saxon name, or icelandic for that matter : Ingland, maybe.

The same probably goes for Scotland, at least in a geographical name (rather than strictly political).

For France, depending on if the suffix -land was used or not, something along these lines : Frankia, Frankland, Frakland.

Also, was France wasn't unified yet was it? I know it had a capet king.
Depends on what you call unified : if it's about having a modern administrative state, then obviously no.

But Capetians begans to enforce their rule, as understood by feudal conventions : no real pretender against them and they managed to have their suzerainty acknowledged and relativly applied at least in the northern part.
It doesn't, of course, make them unchallenged but not at the point to durably lower their power.

Robert II rule, that is admittedly one of the great french kings of the period, is a good exemple : the War of Sucsession of Burgundy shows that while he had to fight to enforce his interests, he was able to win such conflicts, eventually with the support of the church that sealed an important alliance for Capetians.
Eventually, he imposed his elder surviving son as heir, rather than let pairs and elites choose and elect among the whole fratry. Even if the sucession wasn't clearly a primogeniture and was at least technically elective up to Philip Augustus, Robert by associating his heir to the throne managed to prevent a nobiliar takeover of the crown.

France was eventually in a far better situation than in the early X century, and you could say it was the bases for Capetian domination one century later.
 
In fact, I'd say that the reigns of Henry I and early Philip I were the weakest times for Capetian Kings before the Plantagenets.
I agree for Henri I, that lost a part of his father's gain (while being less cause of his skills that a general crisis of feudalism, that damaged his powerful vassals as well).

But for Philip I? I don't see how is early reign is showing a weak kingship. Admittedly, the very beggining doesn't put him in a really dynamic fashion, but it's more due to his youth than a real weakness.
Not only it showes that the vassals doesn't use this to fight the royal authority, but they are the main support of it during his young years.
If something, the royal power is weakened in the middle part of his reign, after the defeat of Puiset in 1079 : before that, he managed to fight sucessfully William of Normandy (by supporting actiely his son) and he's the first Capetian to durably increase the royal demesne.

After Puiset, his reign is more difficult, while he recovers from the defeat in ten years : essentially in his unsucessful opposition to pope and gregorian reform.
 
Yeh, regardless of pronunciation it would have been with a k.

Old Norse wasn't written in latin characters before the XII century, and even there, there wasn't an unified transcription (as it didn't existed in any european language at the exception of latin and greek) : so I don't think "k" can represent something else than pronounciation.
 

Delvestius

Banned
Old Norse wasn't written in latin characters before the XII century, and even there, there wasn't an unified transcription (as it didn't existed in any european language at the exception of latin and greek) : so I don't think "k" can represent something else than pronounciation.

I don't get exactly what your saying, so I'm just gonna talk about [k] in Old Norse.

The Kenaz rune looks like the left side of a diamond, like a 'v' if you turned it sideways and widened it up. Under certain phonological environments, [k] could be allomorphically realized as [kh], [t$], or [$]. Given it's location after the nasal in "Frankia" I believe it would be realized as [t$].
 
I don't get exactly what your saying, so I'm just gonna talk about [k] in Old Norse.
You said "regardless of the pronounciation". As latin script wasn't used, and without common usage on transcription on names from Old Norse to latin script, when I use "k" in this context, it's always for pronounciation, not for how it was written actually IF it was.

Seeing how the nasal disappears in Icelandinc or Feroese, I'm not sure it was maintained in Old Norse translitteration, or admittedly, could have on Frankia but I don't really see how as other germanic languages managed to deal with.
 
The Kingdom of the Hebrides Islands was called Sudhrejar. Orkney and Shetland, typically under direct control of Norway, were just Orkney and Shetland.

Shetland was Hetland or Hjaltland and Orkney was Orkneyjar and together they were Norðreyjar (Northern Isles). The Hebrides was Suðreyjar (Southern Isles).
 

Delvestius

Banned
Seeing how the nasal disappears in Icelandinc or Feroese, I'm not sure it was maintained in Old Norse translitteration, or admittedly, could have on Frankia but I don't really see how as other germanic languages managed to deal with.

Yeh your right, I was reading my norse chart wrong :eek:

Shetland was Hetland or Hjaltland and Orkney was Orkneyjar and together they were Norðreyjar (Northern Isles).

I actually just discovered this and I came back to edit lol
 
The Kingdom of the Hebrides Islands was called Sudhrejar.
Hence the 'Bishop of Sodor and Man', a title that is still used in the CoE although in practice the two sections of the original diocese by that name became two separate dioceses back at a point in Medieval times when Man had become a vassal of England rather than [as for a while before] Scotland-- whereas the Hebrides, run by the 'Lord of the Isles', were at least nominally under Scots overlordship instead -- and the King of England and the King of Scotland were disagreeing about which of two rival Popes to back...
... and from the title of that bishop, of course, the 'Island of Sodor' (in this context located in the Irish Sea to the east of Man, quite close to the coast of Cumbria) on which Thomas the Tank Engine and his friends operate. :D

I think France was Francia, with the [c] sounding like a [ch].
or sometimes 'Valland', instead?
 

Delvestius

Banned
Hence the 'Bishop of Sodor and Man', a title that is still used in the CoE although in practice the two sections of the original diocese by that name became two separate dioceses back at a point in Medieval times when Man had become a vassal of England rather than [as for a while before] Scotland-- whereas the Hebrides, run by the 'Lord of the Isles', were at least nominally under Scots overlordship instead -- and the King of England and the King of Scotland were disagreeing about which of two rival Popes to back...
... and from the title of that bishop, of course, the 'Island of Sodor' (in this context located in the Irish Sea to the east of Man, quite close to the coast of Cumbria) on which Thomas the Tank Engine and his friends operate. :D

Ahaha that's awesome!

or sometimes 'Valland', instead?[/QUOTE]

Perhaps, but I know now it wasn't [Franchia].
 
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