A child of Philip and Mary becomes heir to Spain

Might the Dutch rebels depose Philip in favour of Philip jnr? I honestly don't doubt that parliament would assign regents that are protestant leaning (they can hide behind not wanting foreign influence over their king to remove anyone Philip might send to watch over his son) and the rebels in the Netherlands might try to hide behind the marriage contract.
I think that is a real possibility, which could then of course aggravate things even more
 
I don't actually have time to read the entire Marriage Act, so I just read the summary from ye olde wikipedia instead, and yeah, I was right about what I was thinking.

The Act also declared that if Mary died and her heir was not yet 18 if male, or was under 15 and unmarried if female, then Philip would govern the realm until the heir to the throne came of age (or was married, if female). In that event, it would be treason to "compass, attempt, and go about to destroy the person of the King, or to remove his Highness from the government".

The Act presumed that the Queen would have children by the Prince and allowed full personal union between England and Ireland and all the realms Philip was to inherit from his father or from his grandmother, Queen Joanna of Castile and Aragon, but only should Philip's previous son Charles die childless.

Formally, King Philip was to co-reign with his wife according to the Act, which nevertheless ensured that the new king would not become too powerful by prohibiting him from appointing foreigners to any offices, taking his wife or any child that might be born to them outside her realm and claiming the crown for himself should he outlive his wife
 

Brunaburh

Gone Fishin'
Just to add a small detail, in this situation, rocks almost certainly fall on Elizabeth Tudor. Also, Scotland will not last long as a Protestant state.
 
I don't actually have time to read the entire Marriage Act, so I just read the summary from ye olde wikipedia instead, and yeah, I was right about what I was thinking.
So we have a ginormous realm being inherited by philip junior. That's going to make France shut it self
 
So to confirm, should Infante Carlos die in 1568 without children, then Philip junior stands to inherit the 5rone of Spain, her empire, Naples, Sicily as well as England and Ireland. That’s going to make France, and the papacy very nervous
 
Assuming Philip ii lives till 1598 as otl, when his son ascends the Spanish throne, the boy would be a man with children of his own. Howmwould he manage this vast empire.
 
Assuming Philip ii lives till 1598 as otl, when his son ascends the Spanish throne, the boy would be a man with children of his own. Howmwould he manage this vast empire.

The same way all Habsburgs did, appoint female relatives as regents to parts of his empire.
 
Hmm, would he spend more time in Spain once he’s king, or would he have always been in Spain once his half brother dies?

Definitely not the second option, since the Marriage Act forbids it.

All things considered, it's probably Spain that he appoints a regent to while he stays in England probably trying to gain back Calais and or the rest of France.
 
Definitely not the second option, since the Marriage Act forbids it.

All things considered, it's probably Spain that he appoints a regent to while he stays in England probably trying to gain back Calais and or the rest of France.

Oh that's quite interesting, the Spanish won't be happy about that. Perhaps his sister Catherine and her husband-most likely a Habsburg- get the regency of Spain? Until Philip III can decide on how he wishes the empire to continue running?

I suppose if Mary and Philip had had two sons, and Infante Carlos still died, then the eldest one gets Spain, and the second England.
 
I wonder, the French are going to be shitting themselves regardless of what happens, would they attempt to sow some sort of discord between the different Habsburg Branches? Would they propose Elisabeth de Valois for Philip II's third wife, if Mary dies on schedule? If she dies in say the late 1560s, then what happens to Elisabeth, and who would Philip marry after her death? Would he even bother remarrying?
 
If Mary die only months later than her OTL’s death Elisabeth de Valois will marry her original intended husband aka Don Carlos, Prince of Asturias and is likely they will have children before Carlos’s death and remember who not only a son but also a daughter of Carlos’s will be heir(ess) of Spain, Naples and Sicily before a son of Philip by any other wife. Any child of Carlos will be also the legittimate heir to Portugal after King Sebastian’s death....
 
If Mary die only months later than her OTL’s death Elisabeth de Valois will marry her original intended husband aka Don Carlos, Prince of Asturias and is likely they will have children before Carlos’s death and remember who not only a son but also a daughter of Carlos’s will be heir(ess) of Spain, Naples and Sicily before a son of Philip by any other wife. Any child of Carlos will be also the legittimate heir to Portugal after King Sebastian’s death....
So would philip nominate that kid for
Portugals throne instead of himself
 
So would philip nominate that kid for
Portugals throne instead of himself
Yes, sure... Carlos and his eventual descends were the next in line after Sebastian, being the only other descendants of João III of Portugal. All the OTL candidates for the Crown of Portugal after Seabstian’s death were descendants of Manuel I, the father of João III so here with descendants from his first wife Philip would have the incontestabile legitimate heir after Sebastian as his Spanish heir
 
Yes, sure... Carlos and his eventual descends were the next in line after Sebastian, being the only other descendants of João III of Portugal. All the OTL candidates for the Crown of Portugal after Seabstian’s death were descendants of Manuel I, the father of João III so here with descendants from his first wife Philip would have the incontestabile legitimate heir after Sebastian as his Spanish heir

Even more so than Ranuccio Farnese, who was himself the descendant of Edward, Duke of Guimares, whilst Philip was the heir of Edward's sister?
 
Even more so than Ranuccio Farnese, who was himself the descendant of Edward, Duke of Guimares, whilst Philip was the heir of Edward's sister?
Absolutely. Both Cardinal Henry/Enrique I of Portugal and Duke Edward of Guimares (who was father of Maria, Duchess of Parma (the mother of Ranuccio) and Catherine, Duchess of Braganza) were the younger brothers of King John/Juan/João III and the Empress Isabella (the mother of Philip II) was their sister but Maria Manuela (the first wife of Philip II and mother of Don Carlos) was the daughter of João so would be pretty complicated deny the rights of her son/grandchildren as heirs of Sebastian (who was the son of her brother)
 
Absolutely. Both Cardinal Henry/Enrique I of Portugal and Duke Edward of Guimares (who was father of Maria, Duchess of Parma (the mother of Ranuccio) and Catherine, Duchess of Braganza) were the younger brothers of King John/Juan/João III and the Empress Isabella (the mother of Philip II) was their sister but Maria Manuela (the first wife of Philip II and mother of Don Carlos) was the daughter of João so would be pretty complicated deny the rights of her son/grandchildren as heirs of Sebastian (who was the son of her brother)

This is true, so I wonder why the succession was disputed in the first place.
 
This is true, so I wonder why the succession was disputed in the first place.

Joao had only two surviving childrens by Catherine of Austria: a daughter, Maria Manuela (first wife of Philip II and mother of Don Carlos, Prince of Asturias) and a son John/Juan/João (husband of Juana of Spain, the younger sister of Philip II and father of King Sebastian).
OTL Don Carlos died unmarried and so without heirs before Sebastian’s death. If he had left descendants, something likely to happen if Mary of England’s death had not pushed the French to offer Elisabeth of Valois as bride for his newly widowed father instead of marry her to Carlos as was originally decided.
 
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