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In the early 1950s the West embargoed petroleum from Iran without causing any major issues with supply or pricing. Under the Consortium for Iran the petroleum was brought back to market around 1955. During the lead-up to the Suez Crisis Saudi Arabia was growing closer to Egypt out of mutual opposition to the Hashemite dominated Baghdad Pact, and it embargoed the British and French during the Suez Crisis. Assuming there was more widespread support for the Anglo-French-Israeli Coalition, could an embargo of Saudi Arabian petroleum have been a realistic option in 1956, especially without causing supply or price issues?
It looks like Saudi production was consistently around 250,000 barrels per day higher than Iran's from 1960 to the early 1970s (source). Does anyone know when Saudi Arabia actually surpassed Iran in production though? Would it be correct to assume that there would be sufficient surplus capacity available elsewhere to make up any lost capacity?