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The 1588 Armada lost.

But the 1688 Armada won. William arrived in Torbay with IIRC 21 000 effective soldiers (19 000 sailors stayed aboard).

A subsequent English government would have been (at least somewhat) more popular, and could have got more supporters to fight - whether to win or to die.

Was there any point between 1688 and 1811 where French Navy could realistically have landed 21 000 or more effective soldiers in England - like in 1745, 1779 or 1805?

How many men would France have needed, at those points, to take London and the British Navy homeports of Portsmouth and Rochester by overland attack?
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