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1780: No Slavery in the West/Jeffersons Plan Passes

A couple of questions I'd like to pose to you.

One is something I found interesting - according to a source, the law which would have disallowed slaves in the Old Northwest was only passed by one vote. The person who was supposed to have voted no was bedridden and couldn't.

What would this have meant if slavery was not allowed to expand past the Appalachians? Equally, from the same PoD, what if Jeffersons proposal for the division of states had passed?
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