16th century Universal Monarchy under Charles V?

So i read that Charles V was very close at creating a so called "universal monarchy" as HRE in the early 16th century.

What would that even mean if it was fullfilled? Would the reichstag cease to exist? Would there be a true standing army for the emperor to use? Where would be the capital? What about the role of the Pope and where does that leave the Reformation?

To get that to happen i'd say have the diet of Worms in 1521 was full carrier out right away with Luther arrested so there will not be a diet of Speyer later on, the reformation then lacking momentum to spread properly. I think that would lead to Charles focussing more on the war with France and saving the Papacy from humiliation and make a stronger bond between the Emperor and Pope Clement VII. Maybe then the threat of the Ottomans is enough to end the Italian wars(?). I'm just throwing this out there after only reading a few pages about it.

I'm interested about the answers to my questions. Including a possible Napoleonic style coalition against the HRE by England and France(maybe Ottomans?) later on?
 
While its not exactly Karl V's empire, my one-hitter Groigne qui Groigne, Vive Bourgogne is a son for Charles the Bold whose descendant eventually inherits Spain, Naples, France, Burgundy, Lorraine and perhaps Portugal or Scotland in the near future.
 
Thing is the Bourguignons are very remote in the succession of France, to say nothing f the Trastamara, and the Salic Law severely hinders personal unions with France. However, France is massively rich and populated. Paris would likely be the Empire's best capital administration-wise.
 
While its not exactly Karl V's empire, my one-hitter Groigne qui Groigne, Vive Bourgogne is a son for Charles the Bold whose descendant eventually inherits Spain, Naples, France, Burgundy, Lorraine and perhaps Portugal or Scotland in the near future.

But would that count as a hegemony? A universal monarchy if you don't control the HRE?
 
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