Why? Historical preconceptions (and misconceptions) aside, is there anything pointing out that they were unable to have the same spiritual concerns than modern humanity?We probably overestimate the spiritual aspect of it
And why material advantages are to be separated and opposed to other, more personnal and idealistic motives?Many of those Princes saw an avantages into it, as pointed.
One doesn't exclude the other. Heck, they probably motivated each other quite importantly.
Eventually, I'll stress *again* this point : if it was only "take Church's monies and clay", it would have been far, far more widespread. It wasn't.
Giving it's a discussion about history, and not gratious suppositions we have to rely on sources.One wonder how many even really believed much in God beyond lips services at times. Of course, not said openly, but...
Granted, we can always go the "They'd never put that, but they surely tought otherwise than any of what they let", but baseless assumptions generally don't do well went it comes to scientific criteria.
For all we know, the XVIth was indeed a period of great religious and spiritual questioning, and people do mattered about it.