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WI the provisions of the US Constution requiring the reduction in Congressional representation for states where male citizens were denied the right to vote.

I wonder whether that would actually have changed the 1916 election result.

I picture a black guy from say New York complaining that his voice in Congress was reduced by the over representation of places like Mississippi and South Carolina where most black people were denied the vote but counted in the population.

Of course the Supreme Court insisting on the full enforcement of the Constitution in say 1902 is verging on ASB but....


Is there any way that such a step could have prevented the two parties swapping places and made Republicans more progressive.

(I am thinking that 1916 was an excellant election to lose in the short term and that Conservative Democrats might have had the White House from 1921 to 1933)

Of course 1928 election was an even better won to lose.
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