Dystopian Pre Industrial Societies/States

o? Why is this relevant?
They had hundreds of years before it and some after, I'm pretty sure this is relevant to the topic
I think it shows that you are downplaying the scale of the violence involved
Am I? I hope not, but why? I stated that from what I studied they waged war with adoption as a clear goal of theirs, not a "I wanna kill them all" mindset, not that they werent violent at all, perhaps I should have made that clear on the "not bloodless" part of my reply
and that it wasn't an inevitable consequences of warfare.
Wasnt it? Not only were the europeans one of the groups involved and one of the main factors that led to their radicalization according to the article, but it also states that the other tribes wanted to wipe them out
It doesnt say they wanted to adopt them as well mind you, only "get rid of the iruquoian menace" and that seems to indicate that this type of warfare was going to happen regardless of the iroquoian position on the matter
It's not that those campaigns and conquest weren't bloodless, it's that the scale of violence was enormous relative to the population sizes involved.
For what I got from it it says that these campaigns were on a much larger scale than anything prior to it, not that the violence was extreme while the population small by comparison
The Romans did exterminate some tribes
Isnt that downplaying the roman violence by a lot? I mean Galia alone is between the high thousands and the low millions by estimation
That's a lot to brush off as "some tribes"
but at the same time they didn't dissolve all groups they conquered, there is a reason why so many ethnic groups and tribes left their names in so many regions
True, but a loooot of their conquests involved sending settlers and building campings to make the locals learn the "roman ways" and start speaking latin instead of remaining "barbarian" as how the romans saw it, it's called "romanization" for a reason, Europe wasnt very celt and north africa wasnt very phoenician when they were done with them

Also not to say you are excusing the roman behaviour, after all you did say both commited genocide, but this reply alone suggests you hold the roman conquests as better than the iroquoian because "at least they preserved some of the local culture!" despite them killing off "some tribes"
If that happens to be the case, well you do you, I'd rather not argue on a matter of personal preference for the sake of not devolving a nice conversation into a who-is-downplaying-who argument
 
Quote even one modern Mesoamerican scholar who believes in this "propitiation theory." I've literally never heard it even mentioned when doing research into Mesoamerican cultures. The closest I can find is some mention of people making personal sacrifices to try and make up for misdeeds, or people arguing that the Aztecs viewed being sacrificed as a way to purge someone's sins (and ensure they reached a pleasant afterlife).

But there's nothing about, "Oh, the gods are evil and bloodthirsty so we need to kill a bunch of people to keep them entertained."
Well maybe I misunderstood a reference to personal sacrifice as referring to communal human sacrifice. Like I say, it's not a hill I'm interested in dying on, because "The gods need sacrifice or else they won't be able to make the sun rise" is hardly less dystopian than "The gods need sacrifice to keep them entertained".
Well, no, it also makes sense if you believe that what it was doing--ensuring compliance with orthodoxy through the (attempted) surveillance and systematic oppression of religious minorities--is innately dystopian. Even if their standards of evidence were better than other courts, it still matters what laws they were enforcing.
Every society ensures compliance with orthodoxy. If that makes a society dystopian, then there's never been a non-dystopian society.
Ah yes, when the king brutally executed the leaders of peasant revolts, he was doing it for the good of the peasants.
Living in the middle of a civil war tends to be an objectively bad experience. Do you want to dispute this?
I'm not even talking about the gladiatorial games. The fact of the matter is that the material quality for the population of the Aztec Empire was vastly better than what it was under the Spanish. But apparently human sacrifice is so uniquely awful that Rome's slavery, conquest, genocide, et cetera can be brushed away by saying, "It was materially better than what came after" but the Aztec's atrocities can't.

Why?
Firstly, I've never "brushed away" the bad things Rome did, I simply said that the Roman Empire as a whole wasn't a dystopia.

Secondly, the Aztecs themselves went in for slavery, conquest, and genocide, so this isn't a matter of "slavery, conquest, and genocide vs. human sacrifice" but of "slavery, conquest and genocide vs. slavery, conquest, genocide, and human sacrifice".

Thirdly, I've already explained that religious beliefs are foundational to a person and society's worldview in a way that few other things are. If you believe that the gods are thirsty for blood and need constant human sacrifices to feed them, that's going to seep into your entire outlook. A rotten building can sometimes be salvaged, at least in part; a building built on rotten foundations rarely can.

ETA: Also, with Roman imperialism and the things that went with it, one could at least make a utilitarian argument that it ultimately led to better outcomes than we'd have seen in a world without Roman imperialism, insofar as the average standard of living seems to have gone up, the Empire promoted trade and intellectual exchange both during its existence and afterwards by giving Western Europe a common medium of communication, etc. With Aztec human sacrifice, on the other hand, I think it would be much harder to argue that its absence would have made Central America worse off, so you can't even make an "ends justify the means" argument in defence of it.
 
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Wasnt it? Not only were the europeans one of the groups involved and one of the main factors that led to their radicalization according to the article, but it also states that the other tribes wanted to wipe them out
I really don't like the idea of ever casting genocide as "inevitable."
 
I don't want this thread to be closed for vitriolic arguments going nowhere.
Could Warring States era China count? "There is only war"...
(Many of the ancient era Empires pre-Bronze Age Collapse may count. In fact, they were so hated that when the Sea Peoples arrived, many of the Imperial residents saw no reason to help their government against the Sea Peoples? In fact, some of them welcomed the Sea Peoples?)
 
In fact, they were so hated that when the Sea Peoples arrived, many of the Imperial residents saw no reason to help their government against the Sea Peoples? In fact, some of them welcomed the Sea Peoples?
It's also mentioned as one of the reasons writing and "civilisation" took so long to rebuild
The taxes overlords were dead and nobody was very eager to return to that
 
This thread has gotten too flamebaity, I think everyone needs to chill.
But there's nothing about, "Oh, the gods are evil and bloodthirsty so we need to kill a bunch of people to keep them entertained."
I think this is sort of splitting hairs. The gods actions required their being sated by blood sacrifice to maintain the world. I think that can be characterized as "bloodthirsty." And I could be wrong, but I don't think Fabius Maximus ever said anything about the purpose of sacrifice being to entertain the gods.
If you are going to strongly denounce a culture, it's fair to expect you to actually know what you are talking about. Saying that the gods demanded massive bloodshed for their own amusement basically sounds like remixed Spanish devil-worshiper propaganda.

Ah yes, when the king brutally executed the leaders of peasant revolts, he was doing it for the good of the peasants.
The sorts of excesses in those kinds of executions, ones pertaining to treason or the attempted assassination of a sovereign, can indeed uncritically be called an attempt to exercise state power. Where this case, I think, cannot be made so easily is when it comes to capital punishment more generally, and capital punishment more generally is what people cite when drawing an equivalency between Europeans and the Aztecs. But if the most direct equivalency is with the reaction to treason in Europe (and indeed most of Eurasia), and perhaps the treament of POWs as well, it does seem fairly clear that the Aztecs engaged in this on a much, much larger scale.

Something I'm curious to your knowledge on, @Citrakayah is quality of life and the nature of the class divide in Aztec territory. The Spaniards remarked upon the visible class divide in Tenochtitlan, but what can we really make of this?

Isnt that downplaying the roman violence by a lot? I mean Galia alone is between the high thousands and the low millions by estimation
That's a lot to brush off as "some tribes"
The death toll in Gaul does indeed seem to have been very very high, though it is worth keeping in mind that a lot of this is dependent on Caesar who actually had a propagandistic interest in putting the numbers up, like a lot of ancients.

(Many of the ancient era Empires pre-Bronze Age Collapse may count. In fact, they were so hated that when the Sea Peoples arrived, many of the Imperial residents saw no reason to help their government against the Sea Peoples? In fact, some of them welcomed the Sea Peoples?)
I'm not aware of anything like this in the material or textual record. The closest thing I can think of is the Marxist interpretation of the Exodus, that it represents a memory of the revolt of the lower classes against the Egyptians and their Canaanite vassal-kings, but I don't think the Sea Peoples were super involved in that - in fact, since it was the Pharaohs who settled the Phillistines in Palestine, probably the opposite.

It's also mentioned as one of the reasons writing and "civilisation" took so long to rebuild
The taxes overlords were dead and nobody was very eager to return to that
I've never seen this interpretation before and am fairly skeptical of it.
 
How about you don't get raped or have a master who can do so at any time?

How about still having a support structure of kin who will stand up for you?

How about still have the chance to have personal dreams rather than just being a object, figuratively speaking? I'm not saying they won't change or have to be adjusted, but you can still have them.

So yeah, it's a bit better.
I don't understand this argument at all, the fact of the matter is that the Iroquois DID massacre entire villages and killed people on scale comparable to the Romans considering the smaller population sizes in North America at the time. The idea that the Romans enslaved most conquered people while the Iroquois benevolently accepted them in their ranks is complete non-sense, in no part of the Roman empire were most people enslaved, only a minority was.
The typical conquered person under the Romans would have kept living where he lived without being enslaved(while a significant portion was enslaved, although what exactly happened to them is hard to discuss in general terms, a lot of Roman slavery seem to have been debt slavery anyway not just war-related), while elites differed wildly in their fortunes by either losing power or being elevated above their peers.
Also manumission was common in Roman society, we know plenty of freedmen that later on became famous in various ways. So at least some slaves weren't that different from Iroquois captives(as shown below).

Also the Iroquois arguably had slavery too, in fact the very "adoption" system might in part could be argued to be such a thing:
Pretty much the whole article is relevant, but let's just say that even if you survived a raiding expedition and weren't tortured to death, killed during the fights or sacrificed then what awaited you was something that can be easily argued to have been slavery in various aspects, sure some "adopted" people ended up in position of power but that's not something rare within societies with slavery.
I will quote some parts:
Sexual exploitation of women is an additional feature of slaveholding societies (Patterson 1982), and it appears that the Iroquoians were no exception. Le Jeune (JR 43: 293-94; cf. 9: 255-56; 36: 177; 40: 225; 54: z) addresses this issue in his unequivocal recognition and description of three classes of captives.
The first are those who, having willingly submitted to the yoke of the conquerors and elected to remain among them, have become heads of families after the deaths of their Masters, or have married. Although they lead a tolerably easy life, they are looked upon as slaves, and have no voice, either active or passive, in the public Councils. The second class are those who have fallen into slavery after having been the richest and most esteemed in their own villages, and who receive no other reward from their Masters, in exchange for their ceaseless labor and sweat, than food and shelter. But the fate of the third class is much more deplorable; it consists chiefly of young women and girls, who, because they have not yet found a husband among the Iroquois, are constantly exposed to the danger of losing their honors or their lives through the brutal lechery or cruelty of the Masters or Mistresses. Liaisons between female captives and their male captors were sometimes formally recognized (ibid., 9: 255-56; 30: 277). For example, Dannin (I982: I04-5; cf. Trigger 1976, I: 49) identifies two kinds of marriage in Huron society: officially sanctioned, termed atenonha, and contract, asqua. The latter term (see the discussion of -naskw- above) was assigned to all non-Huron wives, including captives. This woman's status "vis-a-vis other Huron women was more or less that of a slave" (Dannin 1982: I05).
The torture complex of the Iroquoians, said to function in part as an aspect of ideology or as a religious ideal (Knowles 1940; Trigger I990: 51-52; 1976; Lynch 1985), also served as a ritual of enslavement. Initially, torture, including running the gauntlet, being stripped and paraded about a village, and being taunted and defiled, was directed at dishonoring the captive. This sociopsychological facet of slavery is intimately associated with the power relationship that exists between slave and master. A slave "could have no honor because he had no power and no independent social existence, hence no public worth" (Patterson 1982: 10; cf. Lafitau I977: S5I). Torture followed by execution was used not only to eliminate unwanted individuals or those who could not be easily controlled and, accordingly, would not make good slaves-for example, strong-minded or uncooperative warriors and, less frequently, women-but also consciously to remind or impress upon slaves in each village that they were slaves (cf. Trigger 1976, z: 830). Thus, it functioned as a form of social control, recalling and in fact repeating the original and violent act of enslavement (cf. Patterson 1982: 3-4; Trigger 1976, I: 72). It is not surprising, therefore, that slaves often remained with their captors
Although there are no explicit statements in the historical documents on the Iroquoians, taking a new name or, more precisely, being given a new name symbolically cuts individuals off from their genealogical line or their original kin group. In Patterson's (I98z: 55) words, "The changing of a name is almost universally a symbolic act of stripping a person of his former identity.... The slave's former name died with his former self.... Among most kin-based societies the slave took the clan name of his new master." Without their original names, captives become socially dead. They are literally and figuratively without relatives other than those assigned to them. They are denied the opportunity to speak of their original kin, to communicate with them, or to identify in any way with them. They have become someone else. Nonetheless, it is apparent that to themselves the captives remain true. A Huron war chief, described by the Jesuits as "formerly a captive of the Iroquois, and now a Captain among them," addresses a group of Huron sitting in council with the Iroquois, stating: "My brothers, I have not changed my soul, despite my change of country; nor has my blood become Iroquois, although I dwell among them. My heart is all Huron, as well as my tongue" (JR 42: 57). It may well be that this person was a self-server; however, there is no doubt that captives, whether Huron, Iroquois, or otherwise, when given the opportunity to escape, did so and were welcomed back (ibid., 24: 287; 27: 43; z8: 73-75; 32: 233, z6i; 33: 95-97, 157; 35: 223; 36: I33, I65; 46: 31).
 
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Okay, THAT sure makes them look dystopic in my book
I've never seen this interpretation before and am fairly skeptical of it.
It's pretty stretchy yeah, but I think it might have been a factor

Also, something I wanna add to this thread
It doesnt talk about "dystopian-ness" per see but I think this playlist helps understanding how the average life of someone in one of those societies was like
 
I have hard time calling any society that actually maintained itself on the long term a "dystopia", when I look at fictional settings, dystopias tend to be places that make me think "why do people even bring children in this world?" when in real life most of these societies not only maintained themselves but were able generally to keep on building on what people before them created/invented/discovered.
Pre-modern human life was generally hard without even adding warfare, politics, discrimination and so on top of it so on that front it becomes harder to argue that any specific society was significantly worse because of specific institutions when likely both societies suffered from generally similar intrinsic mortality factors(high infant mortality rates, high maternal mortality rates at childbirth, poor nutrition, epidemics, infections and so on) and when climate is also partially responsible for a lot of miserable/prosperous periods in human history.
Now it's true that there could be significant differences among some societies on these fronts but I'd argue from the perspective of people born in mostly developed countries even the most prosperous pre-modern countries in the past were quite miserable.
 
Well maybe I misunderstood a reference to personal sacrifice as referring to communal human sacrifice. Like I say, it's not a hill I'm interested in dying on, because "The gods need sacrifice or else they won't be able to make the sun rise" is hardly less dystopian than "The gods need sacrifice to keep them entertained".
They're both quite unpleasant, but I'd actually consider living in a society that explicitly believes that supernatural forces are evil, malicious, and only kept at bay through intense suffering to be worse than, "We have to sacrifice our lives in order for the world to continue to exist." I could see the latter resulting in some sense of shared communal burden or other virtue. I can see absolutely no upsides to the former, unless, I suppose, you think you can overthrow those gods or ward them away through methods other than giving in to their desires. Then it can form an ideological scaffolding for resistance to tyrants.

If you're a sacrifice, of course, the difference would be academic, but if you're going to talk about "rotten foundations," those different worldviews would presumably result in different societal beliefs.
Every society ensures compliance with orthodoxy. If that makes a society dystopian, then there's never been a non-dystopian society.
... No, they don't. Most societies throughout history concern themselves with orthopraxy--you need to do the rituals correctly, you have to give the rulers what they want, that kind of thing. They aren't terribly interested in thoughtcrimes.
Living in the middle of a civil war tends to be an objectively bad experience. Do you want to dispute this?
I can't help but note you're implicitly placing the blame on the weak people revolting against cruel governments, rather than the people oppressing them. The local lord is the one commanding the tax collectors and the troops. He is completely capable of negotiating with rebellious peasants if he so chooses.
Secondly, the Aztecs themselves went in for slavery, conquest, and genocide, so this isn't a matter of "slavery, conquest, and genocide vs. human sacrifice" but of "slavery, conquest and genocide vs. slavery, conquest, genocide, and human sacrifice".
When did the Aztecs perform genocide? They were the same ethnic group as most of the other people in the lands ruled by the Triple Alliance, and had issues projecting power enough to do more than demand tribute (areas nominally under their control warred with each other); I'd honestly be kind of surprised if they had much in the way of opportunity to perform genocide.

Regardless, even if they did, you'd have to believe that human sacrifice was significantly worse than slavery, conquest, and genocide in order to view the Roman Empire's faults as excusable and the Triple Alliance's as not. If they were just equally bad, well, that's three really bad things versus four really bad things; not exactly a compelling difference.
Thirdly, I've already explained that religious beliefs are foundational to a person and society's worldview in a way that few other things are. If you believe that the gods are thirsty for blood and need constant human sacrifices to feed them, that's going to seep into your entire outlook. A rotten building can sometimes be salvaged, at least in part; a building built on rotten foundations rarely can.
Except, you're wrong, because the notion of religious beliefs being some neat separable thing away from the rest of your beliefs is a new thing; the religious beliefs of both the Aztecs and the Romans were woven throughout the entire structure of their society. The Romans believed that their expansionism and conquest were endorsed by the gods, that was simply how belief in the gods worked in that time and place. The gods were granting them victory.

But apparently Roman society isn't built on a "rotten foundation" despite the belief in authoritarianism and conquest being divinely endorsed, but the Aztecs are uniquely awful because of human sacrifice.
ETA: Also, with Roman imperialism and the things that went with it, one could at least make a utilitarian argument that it ultimately led to better outcomes than we'd have seen in a world without Roman imperialism, insofar as the average standard of living seems to have gone up, the Empire promoted trade and intellectual exchange both during its existence and afterwards by giving Western Europe a common medium of communication, etc. With Aztec human sacrifice, on the other hand, I think it would be much harder to argue that its absence would have made Central America worse off, so you can't even make an "ends justify the means" argument in defence of it.
Even if we grant that this actually happened, and could only have happened with Roman imperialism (as opposed to making trade treaties, new technological advances, et cetera), there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that slavery and genocide was necessary for any of those "better things." Or, if one wants to play the card that those things were necessary because that is Just How Things Were back then (which, to be clear, is an assertion without actual evidence, but whatever, let's be generous), so it would have been impossible to support an empire without them, we must also recognize that human sacrifice was Just How Things Were back then, and the Aztecs were, presumably, similarly unable to do the positive things we're assuming empires do without it.

But we shouldn't assume that empires actually have those positive effects, because evidence of an increase in health due to the Romans is not conclusive, and the intellectual exchange mostly benefited elites.
I think this is sort of splitting hairs. The gods actions required their being sated by blood sacrifice to maintain the world. I think that can be characterized as "bloodthirsty." And I could be wrong, but I don't think Fabius Maximus ever said anything about the purpose of sacrifice being to entertain the gods.
I see your point, but the colloquial use of "bloodthirsty" tends to imply that bloodshed is something actively desired for its own end rather than a necessity for a greater purpose. We generally would not consider WWI generals bloodthirsty for sacrificing their own men to accomplish military objectives, because it's understood that these sacrifices served a broader goal--though we might well consider their conduct towards civilians or enemy soldiers to be bloodthirsty.
The sorts of excesses in those kinds of executions, ones pertaining to treason or the attempted assassination of a sovereign, can indeed uncritically be called an attempt to exercise state power. Where this case, I think, cannot be made so easily is when it comes to capital punishment more generally, and capital punishment more generally is what people cite when drawing an equivalency between Europeans and the Aztecs. But if the most direct equivalency is with the reaction to treason in Europe (and indeed most of Eurasia), and perhaps the treament of POWs as well, it does seem fairly clear that the Aztecs engaged in this on a much, much larger scale.
I would agree that capital punishment for reasons not related to state power or religion cannot be considered to be directly equivalent to Aztec human sacrifice, to be clear.
Something I'm curious to your knowledge on, @Citrakayah is quality of life and the nature of the class divide in Aztec territory. The Spaniards remarked upon the visible class divide in Tenochtitlan, but what can we really make of this?
Oh, yes, they were quite stratified and that stratification had legal force. What immediately comes to mind are the presence of a great many sumptuary laws tightly regulating what wealth could and could not be displayed by non-nobles. As I recall, pocheta would sometimes have to hide their luxuries. And, of course, you had slaves. Some were debtors, some were captives; not all war captives were sacrificed. They don't appear to have been a major source of labor from what I understand, though.

This stratification appears to have been somewhat less present in the Tlaxcalan Confederacy--ironically, due to the influence of the cult of Tezcatlipoca--but, to the best of my knowledge, was still present to some degree. They'd be very stratified by pretty much any modern standard, much less mine.

Regarding quality of life--my understanding of lifespan and nutrition for the peasants in the Triple Alliance is not as great as I'd like it to be. I will note, however, that Tenochtitlan was noted to be incredibly clean (at least by European standards), which would have made living in there substantially more pleasant.
 
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I see your point, but the colloquial use of "bloodthirsty" tends to imply that bloodshed is something actively desired for its own end rather than a necessity for a greater purpose. We generally would not consider WWI generals bloodthirsty for sacrificing their own men to accomplish military objectives, because it's understood that these sacrifices served a broader goal--though we might well consider their conduct towards civilians or enemy soldiers to be bloodthirsty.
I guess here we get into a much more nuanced question of "intentions and perceptions," and I probably don't know enough to be making definitive statements, but my feeling is even though of course the Aztecs would have viewed human sacrifices as a "sacrifice" and a necessity, I don't know that they would view it as "grim necessity" in the way that, say, an English general would. The sacrifice is a good in and of itself, something that is actively celebrated . A general doesn't dance and cheer as he sends men to their deaths, it is truly a question of duty and what must be done. And the fact that Aztec sacrifices were largely (obviously not entirely) drawn from "otherized" classes somewhat diminishes the comparison - you're not sending "your boys" to their deaths in most instances.

I would agree that capital punishment for reasons not related to state power or religion cannot be considered to be directly equivalent to Aztec human sacrifice, to be clear.
Then doesn't the comparative scale of Aztec human sacrifice vs. comparable European practices speak to a evel of greater "dystopia" in Aztec society?
 
I guess here we get into a much more nuanced question of "intentions and perceptions," and I probably don't know enough to be making definitive statements, but my feeling is even though of course the Aztecs would have viewed human sacrifices as a "sacrifice" and a necessity, I don't know that they would view it as "grim necessity" in the way that, say, an English general would. The sacrifice is a good in and of itself, something that is actively celebrated . A general doesn't dance and cheer as he sends men to their deaths, it is truly a question of duty and what must be done. And the fact that Aztec sacrifices were largely (obviously not entirely) drawn from "otherized" classes somewhat diminishes the comparison - you're not sending "your boys" to their deaths in most instances.
Those are fair points, though I think it is going to be hard to tease apart the degree to which the act of sacrifice itself was being celebrated versus the role it played in Aztec culture and the positive effects that were believed to come from it (both to society as a whole, and to the victim).
Then doesn't the comparative scale of Aztec human sacrifice vs. comparable European practices speak to a evel of greater "dystopia" in Aztec society?
I'm not sure it makes sense to try and make comparisons like that, based on raw numbers. Would the American South have been half as dystopic if it had only half as many slaves? If the society in Brave New World only controlled a quarter of the world rather than all of it, would it be only a quarter as dystopic?

Plus, we then get into the question of whether something has to be directly comparable to be morally comparable. There can be vast differences between two practices, but these differences may not be morally relevant. Killing someone because of homosexual intercourse* may be in no way directly comparable to killing someone to bring rain, but should we view those differences as morally relevant? They can have different cascade effects on society, and these can, I suppose, be morally relevant, but a death is a death is a death.

* Yes, I'm aware that there's evidence that the Aztecs also had the death penalty for homosexuality. However, according to Fifth Sun, and some other sources and writings by historians I've read, it seems to be somewhat ambiguous as to the degree to which that evidence is misleading. Either way, though, I'm sure you get the point--murder's murder.
 
I'm not even talking about the gladiatorial games. The fact of the matter is that the material quality for the population of the Aztec Empire was vastly better than what it was under the Spanish. But apparently human sacrifice is so uniquely awful that Rome's slavery, conquest, genocide, et cetera can be brushed away by saying, "It was materially better than what came after" but the Aztec's atrocities can't.
Of course life quality decreased drastically in the first century after Spanish conquest, but what was it like after that? Would the average Aztec subject in 1500 have been better off materially compared to the average subject of New Spain in 1650?
 
I'm not sure it makes sense to try and make comparisons like that, based on raw numbers. Would the American South have been half as dystopic if it had only half as many slaves? If the society in Brave New World only controlled a quarter of the world rather than all of it, would it be only a quarter as dystopic?

Plus, we then get into the question of whether something has to be directly comparable to be morally comparable. There can be vast differences between two practices, but these differences may not be morally relevant. Killing someone because of homosexual intercourse* may be in no way directly comparable to killing someone to bring rain, but should we view those differences as morally relevant? They can have different cascade effects on society, and these can, I suppose, be morally relevant, but a death is a death is a death.

* Yes, I'm aware that there's evidence that the Aztecs also had the death penalty for homosexuality. However, according to Fifth Sun, and some other sources and writings by historians I've read, it seems to be somewhat ambiguous as to the degree to which that evidence is misleading. Either way, though, I'm sure you get the point--murder's murder.
[/QUOTE]
Of course you are correct, these sorts of "Oppression Olympics" narratives are always fraught, which is why historians aren't in the business of normative claims, or at least they shouldn't be. But I do think raw numbers matter, both in and of themselves, and to quote Napoleon "Quantity has a quality all its own": The size of things can indeed transform their quality, profoundly, and make it more or less "dystopic." The world of Brave New World would indeed be less dystopic if less of the world was under the control of that system, both because of the absolute reduction and because that a mere reduction in scale would have trickle down effects to every level of that society.

And I think you could probably for the purposes of this discussion count purely religious death penalties, homosexuality and witchcraft or blasphemy, as being fairly similar to human sacrifice in terms of "dystopia factor," but I still think that the Aztecs would come off worse in the final calculus.
 
I mean, isolation from the outside world doesn't really count as a dystopia. Mass confiscation of weapons doesn't either. And the part of the population subject to religious persecution was extremely small. So none of this really holds up.

Late Qing was probably not an especially fun place to live but I definitely wouldn't call it a dystopia, just a society in a state of social decay and turmoil. Certainly it's much closer to being a dystopia than Edo Japan. Maybe it was a dystopia from the perspective of a Christian in Shandong in the late 1890s.
Not being allowed to leave the country and being stuck in your social position certainly sounds dystopic to me. Many dystopias share the trait of being very isolationist.
By this point with the amount of countries being listed it's as if essentially every pre-industrial state was a dystopia. Which is admittedly true in the sense they probably weren't pleasant places to live in - but the phenomena rather makes the term itself useless.

How about the reverse query; pre-industrial states that were "utopias" compared to their contemporaries? (It's all relative, of course - I can consider an utterly ghastly genocidal empire a "utopia" if all the other ones were even ghastlier genocidal empires)
I get what you mean, but I think most answers have been pretty valid. Of course, the exact definition of a dystopia will change depending on the person and the times, but they all do share enough in common. Hell, plenty of people on both sides of the aisle would not hesitate to call the western world in the current year a dystopia. But for the sake of this thread, I think a good way of looking at it is seeing which historic states were most alike Stalinist Russia or Oceania.
 
Sheesh, this certainly spiraled out of control.
I guess I should ask one more question.
Did any pre-industrial states have anything like the mass surveillance that's become a common feature of most dystopias? And did any of them have their own secret police?
 
Sheesh, this certainly spiraled out of control.
I guess I should ask one more question.
Did any pre-industrial states have anything like the mass surveillance that's become a common feature of most dystopias? And did any of them have their own secret police?
I read that Ancient Rome had its own secret police (frumentarii)?
Mass surveillance, not sure how "mass" that is.
 
Sheesh, this certainly spiraled out of control.
I guess I should ask one more question.
Did any pre-industrial states have anything like the mass surveillance that's become a common feature of most dystopias? And did any of them have their own secret police?
They just didn't have the ability to undertake mass surveillance and effectively act on it in any meaningful way. How is information on random village 157 that is a out of date when received of any use to a state? Many states in preindustrial times had what we would term secret police but they were mainly targeted at the rich and powerful because they would usually be the ones who could actually overthrow them. That really isn't secret police in the Gestapo, NKVD, or Stasi way that we think of when hearing the term. They just couldn't have the reach due to technological limitations.
 
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