Possible to change majority identity of a territory post-1600?

Hi all,

I have been thinking recently about ATLs and whether it is possible to have territories flip their majority identity with a relatively late POD.

In OTL, there have been many attempts at doing this via discriminatory policy and land reform, such as Ireland, Finland, Algeria, Tunisia, South Africa etc. While these were all successful at concentrating land, wealth and political power; and also increasing the minority share of the population; they never flipped the majority culture other than in tiny areas. That meant in all these cases the majority sooner or later took power and marginalized the previous dominant minority. The one possible exception to this is Israel, but this is still in the middle of the process, and it looks likely Palestinians will grow into a large majority in the combined area, so it is unclear how it will work out. The only other examples I can think of are in depopulated areas like the Americas and Australia. Are there any I have missed?

This got me wondering about what made the modern period so much different to earlier time periods, where relatively small number of migrants made a huge cultural switch: Turks in Anatolia, Arabs across the Fertile Crescent and North Africa, Anglo-Saxons in Britain, Scots in Northern Ireland etc.

I have two theories. The first is the industrial revolution and the demographic transition. Before the modern period, the dominant and suppressed group both grew quickly. Afterwards, the dominant group was wealthy enough they saw falling fertility, while the suppressed group continued to breed rapidly in their poverty - aided further by better famine reduction techniques and medical advances from modernity. This meant that any cultural change was facing an increasing demographic uphill.

The second theory I have is that literacy, modern communication and nationalist ideology meant much greater identity cohesion and cultural memory of the suppressed group. People like the native Irish and the Algerians felt a greater sense of collective identity, and remembered wrongs, than did the native Britons. This caused a sense of national pride which led to a much greater unwillingness to culturally and linguistically convert.

What does this mean for writing alternate history? I think it means mass cultural change requires delayed nationalism (perhaps from an averted French Revolution), technology slowdown (later or more geographically narrow industrial revolution), slower demographic transition by elites (a more religious population) or greater famines/plagues for the poor through harsher policy.

Thoughts?
 
Well, this happened plenty of times, clearly with settler colonialism historically in Australia, New Zealand, very huge portions of North America and Siberia, large bits of the Eurasian steppes, and major bits of the South American Southern Cone.
Also, arguably Taiwan, Hokkaido, parts of Southern Vietnam that used to be majority Cham or Khmer, the Ayerwaddy Delta, are historical examples. In some of these cases, the local inhabitants assimilated to the newcomers (who however has numbers on their side, usually) in terms of identity (this seems to have been the case in the Mekong Delta, and I suspect also with the Mon people in southern Burma).
Arabization of Sudan also mostly happened in this timeframe, with formerly Nubian people assuming the "Arab" tribal identity of the newcomers.
 
Plenty of examples, but most will be down to colonialism and an overarching identity forming and solidifying upon independence.

A Pakistani identity is a relatively modern thing, and it trickled down from the top.
 

Deleted member 109224

France seemed to have something of a knack for getting the peoples that it conquered in Europe to identify as French.

Outside of Europe not as much. Maybe if they actually granted rights and liberties to the Algerians, folks there would associate becoming French with gaining rights and whatnot.
 

Deleted member 114175

Western Poland and Kaliningrad are both non-colonial examples. Also the Italianization of Italy.
 
Also, many of the extant ethnic identities of Bantu peoples in Southern Africa, such as Zulu, Ndebele, Sotho, Fipa, and others, took form after 1600.
 
Brussels was largely Flemish-speaking upon the independence of Belgium but then became predominantly francophone as French was the language of the government and the upper classes.
 
Novorossiya and the Russian colonization of Siberia both might count to some extent.

Siberia was largely depopulated so that is similar to the Americas. Novorussia was largely a nomadic population, which is fairly unique.

France seemed to have something of a knack for getting the peoples that it conquered in Europe to identify as French.

Outside of Europe not as much. Maybe if they actually granted rights and liberties to the Algerians, folks there would associate becoming French with gaining rights and whatnot.

Big difference here is a religious divide. Much easier to get your co-religionists to convert.

Western Poland and Kaliningrad are both non-colonial examples. Also the Italianization of Italy.

Western Poland is perhaps my favourite example as it is on a settled, religiously different population with an existing national identity. What did the Prussians do "right" here that the English failed to do in Ireland or the French in Algeria?
 
Well, this happened plenty of times, clearly with settler colonialism historically in Australia, New Zealand, very huge portions of North America and Siberia, large bits of the Eurasian steppes, and major bits of the South American Southern Cone.
Also, arguably Taiwan, Hokkaido, parts of Southern Vietnam that used to be majority Cham or Khmer, the Ayerwaddy Delta, are historical examples. In some of these cases, the local inhabitants assimilated to the newcomers (who however has numbers on their side, usually) in terms of identity (this seems to have been the case in the Mekong Delta, and I suspect also with the Mon people in southern Burma).
Arabization of Sudan also mostly happened in this timeframe, with formerly Nubian people assuming the "Arab" tribal identity of the newcomers.

I am less interested in the new world examples as these were simply low population areas due to tribal society. Hokkaido seems similar. Could you tell me more about Taiwan, Vietnam and Myanmar? My Asian history is not great.
 
I am less interested in the new world examples as these were simply low population areas due to tribal society. Hokkaido seems similar. Could you tell me more about Taiwan, Vietnam and Myanmar? My Asian history is not great.
Not an expert either, but the broad lines are as follows:
- Taiwan (well, its lowlands at least) was conquered by Ming loyalists and then by the Qing. A Han Chinese (specifically mostly Min and Hakka IIRC) population settled there and seems to have mixed with the natives. I am under the impression that the island was quite the backwater under Qing rule (in terms of numbers of Chinese settlers) and its modern ethnic makeup has a lot to do with the subsequent Japanese colonial period (when I think that the official line was to Japanify the island, but that obviously did not work) and the later influx of Guomindang loyalists. Descendants of Aboriginal Taiwanese peoples who identify as such are recognized to be a very small portion of the modern population, but my understanding is that genetically, there's Aboriginal descent among people who identify as Chinese as well.
I am not sure about the pre-conquest native population in Taiwan, they were seemingly quite low tech, but still agricultural.

I'll answer you later about Vietnam and Burma.
 

Deleted member 114175

Western Poland is perhaps my favourite example as it is on a settled, religiously different population with an existing national identity. What did the Prussians do "right" here that the English failed to do in Ireland or the French in Algeria?
I was referring to the Soviets expelling Germans east of the Oder-Neisse border and Poland annexing it, rather than the initial Germanization of Pommerania etc. which occurred in the Middle Ages. Ironically those territories had been Poland in 1000 AD which was part of the justification of the Oder-Neisse border.

The medieval-Renaissance phenomenon of Germanization of Pommerania, Silesia, and Prussia was basically done by the 1600s. The reason parts of Eastern Europe in 1600 had become German speaking in the first place was due to the Ostsiedlung, primarily caused by medieval farming technology such as three-field crop rotation and the mouldboard plough. As for Prussia itself it was Germanized after the Baltic Crusades, the Teutonic Knights massacred most of the Baltic Prussians and the area was resettled by colonists from the Holy Roman Empire.

In the case of Prussia it essentially was proto-colonial conquest, while the other (medieval) settlements were economic and largely peaceful for example the Obotrites became a German noble family the House of Mecklenburg. Indeed most immigrants from the Holy Roman Empire assimilated into the West Slavic cultures and diffused farming and urban techniques without actually culturally assimilating the region. All of this was before 1600 though.
 
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Western Poland is perhaps my favourite example as it is on a settled, religiously different population with an existing national identity. What did the Prussians do "right" here that the English failed to do in Ireland or the French in Algeria?

The Prussians were the ones being expelled. The Polish and Soviet government simply forced out the Germans and brought in Polish and Russian settlers.

That model might be applicable to Ireland. Maybe Cromwell decides to expel all the so called Papists. Though the war already was very devastating, and an Irish identity still survived. So it might not be possible. I don't know much about Algeria, so I am not sure if it can be done there.
 
The Prussians were the ones being expelled. The Polish and Soviet government simply forced out the Germans and brought in Polish and Russian settlers.

That model might be applicable to Ireland. Maybe Cromwell decides to expel all the so called Papists. Though the war already was very devastating, and an Irish identity still survived. So it might not be possible. I don't know much about Algeria, so I am not sure if it can be done there.

The problem is, when you expel population from a territory you conquered, said population ceases to extract value from said territory, which tends to reduce the tax revenue of the conquest. Of course, having to control a disloyal population may also be bad for state budget, which is part of why ethnic cleansings did and do happen. You can replace natives with presumably loyal settlers, if you have enough of them, or put some of your people in the mix and let assimilatory mechanisms work their slow way. Or you can disempower and discriminate the conquered people, which of course would likely reinforce their own identity in ways that backfire on you (eg. Ireland).
 
Not an expert either, but the broad lines are as follows:
- Taiwan (well, its lowlands at least) was conquered by Ming loyalists and then by the Qing. A Han Chinese (specifically mostly Min and Hakka IIRC) population settled there and seems to have mixed with the natives. I am under the impression that the island was quite the backwater under Qing rule (in terms of numbers of Chinese settlers) and its modern ethnic makeup has a lot to do with the subsequent Japanese colonial period (when I think that the official line was to Japanify the island, but that obviously did not work) and the later influx of Guomindang loyalists. Descendants of Aboriginal Taiwanese peoples who identify as such are recognized to be a very small portion of the modern population, but my understanding is that genetically, there's Aboriginal descent among people who identify as Chinese as well.
I am not sure about the pre-conquest native population in Taiwan, they were seemingly quite low tech, but still agricultural.

I'll answer you later about Vietnam and Burma.

There is a wide cultural gap gap between Luzon and Taiwan and it is that Luzon adapted Islam and Hinduism like its neighbors and its hostility to the chinese and the fact that it has its own nobility which is always ignored here because majority of people think that Luzon was as tribal as the Native Taiwanese before the Spanish came - it is not.

I was referring to the Soviets expelling Germans east of the Oder-Neisse border and Poland annexing it, rather than the initial Germanization of Pommerania etc. which occurred in the Middle Ages. Ironically those territories had been Poland in 1000 AD which was part of the justification of the Oder-Neisse border.

The medieval-Renaissance phenomenon of Germanization of Pommerania, Silesia, and Prussia was basically done by the 1600s. The reason parts of Eastern Europe in 1600 had become German speaking in the first place was due to the Ostsiedlung, primarily caused by medieval farming technology such as three-field crop rotation and the mouldboard plough. As for Prussia itself it was Germanized after the Baltic Crusades, the Teutonic Knights massacred most of the Baltic Prussians and the area was resettled by colonists from the Holy Roman Empire.

In the case of Prussia it essentially was proto-colonial conquest, while the other (medieval) settlements were economic and largely peaceful for example the Obotrites became a German noble family the House of Mecklenburg. Indeed most immigrants from the Holy Roman Empire assimilated into the West Slavic cultures and diffused farming and urban techniques without actually culturally assimilating the region. All of this was before 1600 though.

The Germanization in Silesia is in Lower Silesia became more complete as the majority of Protestant Poles in Silesia left to PLC except in Cieszyn and majority of them want their part of Silesia to return to Poland, the Catholic Poles in Silesia and Galicia are okay with the Habsburgs and the status quo.
 
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Western Poland is perhaps my favourite example as it is on a settled, religiously different population with an existing national identity. What did the Prussians do "right" here that the English failed to do in Ireland or the French in Algeria?
English did right in Northern Ireland, just like Prussians did right in Pomerania and East Prussia. At the time Prussia took over these lands population was already largely Lutheran and German speaking. If you think about people with different religion and strong national identity (Poles in Posen and West Prussia) Prussians were no more successful than English in Ireland (even less-English rule at least caused nearly total language shift among Irish population). Rise of German population during 19th century Prussian rule was caused mainly by flooding area with German settlers (that way some sparsely populated areas became Germanized, like area north of Noteć/Netze river, which during PLC times was heavy forested borderland). So Prussia is not example of country that succeeded on field where English failed.
 

Skallagrim

Banned
One of the more recent examples is Kosovo. Exact census results (by different parties) contradict each other, but we can say that halfway through the 19th century, the population could be described as roughly 50% Serbs and 50% Albanians.

Nowadays? 93% Albanians.
 
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