AHC: Catalonia and Occitania Switch

So, I imagine everyone is aware of the current issue of Catalan independence that's hit a fever pitch in recent weeks.

My challenge is this, reverse the situations of Catalonia and Occitania as late as possible, so that Catalan is nearing extinction, while Occitan remains a vibrant language and the subject of an independence movement.
 
For Occitania, you’d need to avoid the French Revolution. A weak, absolutist Royal France suffering from popular revolts would certainly be unable to bring about the expansion of the French language to Occitania without the experience of the French Revolutionary and Napoleonic Wars uniting the country.
 
Thing is, you had no idea of Occitan identity historically. The word itself is a Capetian creation, sort of mix between Languedoc and Aquitania. Rather, you had regional/dynastical identities that often overlapped themselves : Aquitain/Guyenese, Tolsan, Provencal, Lemosin, Bearnais, Auvergnat, Poitevin, and Goth/Catalan that was a part of the Occitano-Romance continuum. In fact, it's next to impossible to really differenciate Old Catalan to Old Occitan, because it's essentially the same and not even one of the most distinct dialectal ensemble (that would be Gascon).
Catalan growth more and more distinctive, ending as an ansbausprache, meaning a language created out of elaboration, of political and institutional differenciation.

It's litterally next to impossible to promote an inexistant Occitan identity from the Middle-Ages : what you could expect would be a similar differenciation out of Provencal, Aquitain, Tolsan, etc. identity that might be (maybe) identified to a greater part of Occitano-Romance ensemble but that's far from obvious. In reality, if you manage to have a Provencal independent and autonomous region for centuries even within an unified state, it's likely it would define itself as Provencal and grow distinct from the other Occitano-Romance speeches.

For Occitania, you’d need to avoid the French Revolution. A weak, absolutist Royal France suffering from popular revolts would certainly be unable to bring about the expansion of the French language to Occitania without the experience of the French Revolutionary and Napoleonic Wars uniting the country.
Highly dubious IMO. You had a growing situation of diglossy in southern France since the Late Middle-Ages and it was a firmly rooted situation since the Renaissance (there's a reason why Rabelais is internationally known and not Godolin. Or why Montesquieu is celebrated as a french-speaking philosopher).

By the time the printing press was present there (and it was present relatively early on the XVIth century), Occitan lost its cultural edge since centuries.

Without, of course, considering the above point about the utter lack of an Occitan identity whatsoever before the XXth century. (XIXth century if you count Felibrige movement).

Now, if you meant a more popularily widespread use of Occitan, the diglossy situation more or less perdured into the late XIXth and early XXth century. See, in spite of the black legend of the Revolution, no real effort was made to curb down regional languages that weren't done by the kings (Jacobin propaganda was made in Occitan because how the heck did you wanted people to understand you otherwise).
What really put it down was the mandatory education (in French) and mass-media (newspapers played a massive role into political and social life in France, hence why Le Petit Journal had the biggest number of daily prints in the world for a while).

By the XVIth, simply said, the basic political identity there was "French", and it remained unmovably so until our days because there wasn't much alternative.Even the Provinces de l'Union were only a tentative of institutional regionalism without any claim of a distinct cultural identity.

You want that, two words: Kill France.
Not even this would be enough : you need to create a common identity out of the various regional ensembles (which had the particularity to be even more divided and clusterfucked than Northern France) whom only common polity if you go back enough in time was the Kingdom of Aquitaine, which had no real existence safe constituent title of Late Carolingian WFrance since the IXth century.

To have a common Aquitain identity that would cover (maybe not entierly, "Gothia" was often used for the S-E fourth) a significant part of the Occitano-Roman linguistic ensemble would require at least a IXth PoD, and not just kill off the only unifying identity southern Gaul knew since Roman times.

Finally people should really realize at this point that linguistic ensemble =/= political identity.
 
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Perhaps if Aquitaine remains under Plantagenet rule which would mean it would gradually get independence or autonomy from France and England..since the nationalism can spread to other parts of occitania.
 
The equivalent of Catalonia isn't Occitania, but instead one of the subregions of Occitania, much how Catalonia is one of the Catalan Countries alongside Valencia, the Balearics, etc., and the whole independence debate revolves mainly around Catalonia. You would thus need a POD to make one of the "Occitan Countries" (call them) gain a separate identity from France.
 

Brunaburh

Banned
The point about this is that Occitan and Catalan are artificial designations (as is French, Spanish, English, whatever). As Lscatalina pointed out above, the two are merely standardised varieties of a dialect continuum. However, we could be more extensive and say that, in 1600, this dialect continuum ran from around Dinan in Brittany to the environs of Trieste, just West of Calais, Corunna, The pillars of Hercules and just south of Napoli.

If you want Occitan to become the main language of an area, you must decide which area and which Occitan. Most of the POD's that can do this would prevent a separate entity called "Catalan" from emerging.
 
I am globally on the same line as @LSCatilina, but I would like to stress out some points.

"Occitania" is latin, the direct equivalent to "Languedoc" in French. The idea of a linguistic divide is not however only a Capetian creation. Count Raymond VII of Toulouse did grant to the consuls of Toulouse the right of repraisal against "men of our language" taking the side of the Crusaders. He did not use any political/feudal distinction ("fideles nostri"), but a cultural/linguistic one.

As Languedoc kept its own institution until the modern era (States Generals, written law instead of customary law, fiscal autonomy etc), if early modern France went a different, proto-parliamentary, way, Languedoc (but not Occitania in the XXIth c. meaning) could end up in a situation similar to Scotland or Catalonia : a region with strong sense of identity and long institutionnal history. But the butterflies of such a choice in France would render any comparison to OTL irrelevant...
 
As others have said above, "Occitan" is too broad an area with too broad language gradient to form a clear identity in the absence of strong state covering it. Your best chance would be to have the equivalent of a 1940s-German style total defeat, with the victorious allies carving out the south of France in to another state. To then replicate a Catalan style situation, you'd then need some reconquest by a totalitarian France over Occitania, with the resultant brutal rule creating an Occitan historical mythology of always being under French oppression.

A more plausible route is to have a range of provincial identities develop in southern France during the 19th Century. Despite the caveats mentioned above, it would help if the French Revolution didn't happen as that stops (a) the abolition of larger provinces (b) the glory of Napoleon creating patriotic fervour and (c) a French identity separate from the monarchy. You can then create a system were bad kings during the age of nationalism in the 1800s lead to people in the south rejecting the rule of "French" Kings stamping out their local autonomy. That could then develop into longings for independence from Gascony, Provence, Languedoc etc during the 20th Century.
 
By the XVIth, simply said, the basic political identity there was "French", and it remained unmovably so until our days because there wasn't much alternative.

How strong were 16th century national identities in most villages anyway? Not much, in everything I've read about the subject. And people have strong national identities like (Slavic) Macedonian today, despite virtually no historical identity of that before the 20th Century. These things can come out of nowhere if the political structures change.
 
Catalonia and Occitania Switch. Very unlikely.

I see it in some other way. Also unlikely but more interesting. And reducing to size to the Languedoc. Occitania is to broad and loosely defined in my opinion.

A strong cultural spread of Catalan language and culture in Languedoc (i.e. Cultural hegemony). It would replace Occitan or whatever it remained with Catalan as the prestige language and cultural medium. Perhaps it could be in better feet to stand the cultural assimilation to French language and culture while keeping a strong regional identity.

That could also led to some form Catalonian nationalism in the Languedoc (let's say it takes form around 1848) after they sorted out some way to link themselves mythically to the time when the counties of Foix, Toulouse and Barcelona were part or were vassals to the Crown of Aragon (the theoretical and mythical Languedoc of other times). I meant here mythically in the way nationalism can invent a tradition, history, society and finally a national state when there was no previous historical or cultural background.

Visca el Llenguadoc independent!
(in Catalonian: Long live the independent Languedoc!)
Visca el Llenguadoc lliure!
(in Catalonian: Long live the free Languedoc!)
 
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Catalonia and Occitania Switch. Very unlikely.

I see it in some other way. Also unlikely but more interesting. And reducing to size to the Languedoc. Occitania is to broad and loosely defined in my opinion.

A strong cultural spread of Catalan language and culture in Languedoc (i.e. Cultural hegemony). It would replace Occitan or whatever it remained with Catalan as the prestige language and cultural medium. Perhaps it could be in better feet to stand the cultural assimilation to French language and culture while keeping a strong regional identity.

That could also led to some form Catalonian nationalism in the Languedoc (let's say it takes form around 1848) after they sorted out some way to link themselves mythically to the time when the counties of Foix, Toulouse and Barcelona were part or were vassals to the Crown of Aragon (the theoretical and mythical Languedoc of other times). I meant here mythically in the way nationalism can invent a tradition, history, society and finally a national state when there was no previous historical or cultural background.

Visca el Llenguadoc independent!
(in Catalonian: Long live the independent Languedoc!)
Visca el Llenguadoc lliure!
(in Catalonian: Long live the free Languedoc!)
Actually, Provencals also called themselves Catalans..
 
Then to simplify, is it possible to preserve the Occitan sub-languages as the predominantly spoken language in Southern France, and/or the reduction of Catalan to a state resembling modern Occitan?
 
"Occitan" is relatively varied, nevertheless from my understanding the difference between "Catalan" and "Occitan" in say Septimania or Provence was not, in fact, all that much of a difference, indeed the languages are still quite close.
 
Catalonia and Occitania Switch. Very unlikely.

I see it in some other way. Also unlikely but more interesting. And reducing to size to the Languedoc. Occitania is to broad and loosely defined in my opinion.

A strong cultural spread of Catalan language and culture in Languedoc (i.e. Cultural hegemony). It would replace Occitan or whatever it remained with Catalan as the prestige language and cultural medium. Perhaps it could be in better feet to stand the cultural assimilation to French language and culture while keeping a strong regional identity.

That could also led to some form Catalonian nationalism in the Languedoc (let's say it takes form around 1848) after they sorted out some way to link themselves mythically to the time when the counties of Foix, Toulouse and Barcelona were part or were vassals to the Crown of Aragon (the theoretical and mythical Languedoc of other times). I meant here mythically in the way nationalism can invent a tradition, history, society and finally a national state when there was no previous historical or cultural background.

Visca el Llenguadoc independent!
(in Catalonian: Long live the independent Languedoc!)
Visca el Llenguadoc lliure!
(in Catalonian: Long live the free Languedoc!)

As others had pointed out, the distinction between Catalan and Occitan is political : roman languages spoken one side of the frontier were called "occitan", while the neighbours south of the line spoke "catalan". So, any "Catalan spread" in southern France would be because the Counts of Barcelona actually succeeded in putting the Toulouse and the Trencavel under their authority. If this is the case, the strength of the new entity would render very unlikely a conquest by the Kings of France.

In Catalan, it is Visca Llenguadoc lliure (not el), but Languedoc has only a meaning vis-a-vis the Languedoïl inside the French Kingdom. A Catalan-dominated southern France would not be called Llenguadoc, but probably something like Tolosà or Tramont.
 
As others had pointed out, the distinction between Catalan and Occitan is political : roman languages spoken one side of the frontier were called "occitan", while the neighbours south of the line spoke "catalan". So, any "Catalan spread" in southern France would be because the Counts of Barcelona actually succeeded in putting the Toulouse and the Trencavel under their authority. If this is the case, the strength of the new entity would render very unlikely a conquest by the Kings of France.

In Catalan, it is Visca Llenguadoc lliure (not el), but Languedoc has only a meaning vis-a-vis the Languedoïl inside the French Kingdom. A Catalan-dominated southern France would not be called Llenguadoc, but probably something like Tolosà or Tramont.

More outstanding than my idea. That means that a cultural area integrated by the Valencian-Catalan-Tolosà or Tramont could had come to existence if the right components or conditions enable it to have a common pan-nationalism or irredentism. More extended than the regions claimed by Catalan nationalism.

An awesome and challenging ATL could be written.
 

Brunaburh

Banned
In Catalan, it is Visca Llenguadoc lliure (not el).

Are you sure? I'm not a not a native speaker of Catalan, but the article with Llenguadoc seems to be correct in affirmative statements. I'm pretty sure it would be "Visca la frança", so "visca el llenguadoc" would follow the same pattern.
 
"Occitania" is latin, the direct equivalent to "Languedoc" in French.
Not exactly : Occitania (as in "Pars Occitaniae") is an hybridation of "Aquitainia" and "Oc" to designate the region, stressing Capetian claims over southern France, and had a vague definition until the XIVth. It does have a linguistical component, but is quite political and in relation with the Kingdom of France (basically it was claimed that the French king ruled both Occitania and Oilitania: the concept, obviously, didn't last)

"Langudeoc" comes from other uses such as "Patria Lingua Occitaniae" (the land of the Occitan language), but stress more the linguistical part, which is understable as Estates Generals up to the late XVth were divided in French speaking and Occitan-speaking assemblies.

Eventually, as Capetians took more and more Occitanophone regions, Occitania fell into disuse in favour of expanded regional names as Gascony, while Languedoc was "specialized" into the regions first conquered (and without a clear toponym even in the XIIth, apart Tolsan).

So, indeed, both names have a common origin, aren't entierly similar in use altough largely overlapping themselves : but Occitania does predate Languedoc.

The idea of a linguistic divide is not however only a Capetian creation.
Which was not what was argued : Catalan linguistic differenciation is a by-product of the establishment of Barcelonese and Aragonese chanceries and the firmly established and definitive political differenciation.
While the Crusade was certainly the last and more radical last straw on this regard, it's likely IMO that Catalan would have gone a similar way than Bearnese (a sub-dialect of Gascon) in Navarre-Bearn, that is its own chancery and intellectual basis, making it quite distinct up to the XVIIth century. See, the distinction between transpyrenean and cispyrenean Occitan comes from a long way that can be traced at least from the Xth century (geopolitically wise) and the Great Southern War (which is a conflict barely known, but basically it's a Occitan HYW that last from the XIIth to the very early XIIIth century between the Raimondins and the House of Barcelona, with Trencavel and other lords switching sides, and Plantagenets and Caetians playing guests stars) was another sign of this growing distinction.

Count Raymond VII of Toulouse did grant to the consuls of Toulouse the right of repraisal against "men of our language" taking the side of the Crusaders. He did not use any political/feudal distinction ("fideles nostri"), but a cultural/linguistic one.
Which is a bit irrelevant : at this point, the problem in Toulouse was that a part of the population was supporting Crusaders (for exemple, the White Company led by the bishop) and the city had to deal with this kind of disorder. Toulouse being a remarkably free city, a part of the population was
It says nothing about the differenciation between Occitan and Catalan.

As Languedoc kept its own institution until the modern era (States Generals, written law instead of customary law, fiscal autonomy etc)
You're mixing a lot of stuff there.
- Estates Generals were a general gathering of notables, which were divided on French and Occitan speaking assemblies (and not specifically Languedoc), and they were merged in 1484.
- Provincial Estates tended to became, from the XVIth onwards, administrative chambers rather than deliberative (or even less representative), and suppletive/supportive of the bureaucratic state, rather than autonomies. The same could be said about the Particular Estates (sort of sub-Provincial Estates) which were both plethoric and not that relevant in Languedoc.
- Fiscal autonomy was technically coming from Provincial Estates, but in truth, were more issued from the balance of power between nobility and royal authority (such as the conflict between Richelieu and Montmorency highlights).
- Written Law, such as the Custom of Toulouse, was only formalized during the Crusade, by Simon de Montfort. Not that you didn't have written codex, but it was rather a mix of Theodosian and Alaric Laws applied diversly.

There's other apparatus in Languedoc (or, arguably, in all the regions of France as it was far from being a sole case), but the rule is that by the XVth onwards, they're growingly symbolic, tied to the royal state apparatus, heavily frenchified, and not really identitarian based.
This is the great misunderstanding on this board and the Anglo-American members particulary about the Ancien Régime administration ; these institutions were created in stages, by the royal power, as for its affirmation.

if early modern France went a different, proto-parliamentary, way,
If it was the case, it would be with a Parliment of Paris which would be hegemonic, and with fewer regional Parliments being created.

Your best chance would be to have the equivalent of a 1940s-German style total defeat, with the victorious allies carving out the south of France in to another state.
The problem is that, the time for a totalitarian regime to appear, you have to wait the XIXth century at best. And at this point, French identity is firmly rooted in southern France. Again, people there should accept that languages doesn't make a national or ethnic identity, would it be for southern France, Asturias, Alsace-Moselle, Wallonia, Low German, etc.

How strong were 16th century national identities in most villages anyway?
Before the contemporary era, and what it carried in manners of cultural transmission (education, mass-medias, etc.) the cultural transformation is a matter of elites : upper and middle classes, essentially.
Pointing that remote villages doesn't participate to the movement in the XVIth, and therefore there is no national identity is as intellectually dishonest than arguing that before the XIXth you had no firm political affirlation in lower classes and therefore no firm political affiliation.

For what matter the XVIth century, when you look at which languages are sued by these upper and middle classes (essentially French), how they kept referring to themselves (it's not Languedocian), on which state apparatus they were growingly tied (there's no real alternative, so the answer is obvious), etc. It's pretty much clear which the identity was where it mattered.

I mentioned above the Provinces de l'Union, which were an attempt at political regionalism during the Wars of Religion (in 1573 exactly) and that, besides encountering only a weak support at best, never advanced the idea of a distinct identity but at the contrary upheld the idea of a royal rule supported by provincial assemblies.


These things can come out of nowhere if the political structures change.
Not in the contemporary era : a nation, or even a regional identity, is built on the sense of common history, territory (in the broad sense, could be vague geography or economic horizon) and language (again, in the broad sense, it doesn't ask much for considering your dialect is very, very different from another one, even if pretty close). Of course it's tied up with political change and the presence of a distinct state apparatus (or a potential state apparatus).

It doesn't come out of nowhere, or PoD=random stuff happens, but is an historical and social build-up. You can't just assume it would appear out of thin air.

A strong cultural spread of Catalan language and culture in Languedoc (i.e. Cultural hegemony). It would replace Occitan or whatever it remained with Catalan as the prestige language and cultural medium.
At this point, tough, it would lead pretty lead to a re-occitanisation of Catalan, as such a cultural spread would imply a political control of at least part of Languedoc.

Rather than Visca el Llenduadoc independent (keeping in mind that Languedoc as a toponym is a by-product of the Capetian takeover), we would rather have something akin to Que Viva le Lengadoc Independent!

Que Viva(as in the old "Viva Tolosa", altough I kept the "que" in order to mirror Visca which does exist in Lengadocian, but would be seen as a pedantism)
Le (Tolosan/Lower Languedoc system of definite article)
Lengadoc
Independent

Actually, Provencals also called themselves Catalans..
I never saw it, actually. Don't you confuse with either the fact that Barcelonese took over Provence several times, or with the fact that Catalan sometimes called themselves Pro(v)encals (as it was customary in a large part of the Occitan-speaking ensemble)?

Then to simplify, is it possible to preserve the Occitan sub-languages as the predominantly spoken language in Southern France, and/or the reduction of Catalan to a state resembling modern Occitan?
As others had pointed out, the distinction between Catalan and Occitan is political : roman languages spoken one side of the frontier were called "occitan", while the neighbours south of the line spoke "catalan". So, any "Catalan spread" in southern France would be because the Counts of Barcelona actually succeeded in putting the Toulouse and the Trencavel under their authority.
I mostly agree, but this is not really going to happen unless we tweak enough with the Xth century. Southern France was particularily divided territorially, due to the War of Succession of Auvergne/Aquitaine in the Xth century (which more or less broke the region into three distinct political ensemble : Auvergne, Aquitaine, Tolsan), the conflicts between Toulouse and Barcelone in the XIth/XIIth century, and the Great Southern War, aformentioned.

While Barcelone maintained a certain unity, when Raimondins attempted it, it provoked a set of nasty conflicts, as the region was simply too divided to really be more than locally unified. Think Italy in Middle-Ages scale.
The only reason why Raimondins acknwoledged Peire II's authority in 1212 was because they needed an ally and that the French king refused to take sides even when asked. On a political takeover sense, neither Raimondins and Barcelonese/Aragonese had a real possibility putting this, especially as their conflict already began to create a distinction.

Now, it's not impossible to see an Occitan principalty pulling a Milan and at least attempting to form a regional hegemony with enough luck. Truth to be told, @phil03 is working on such TL (I really should focus on making the skeleton of the tl this week) with a PoD during the Crusade.
 
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