The region of Normandy was english ruled for some time, from the invasion of William the bastard until the end of the 100 years war, as the map in the spoiler below shows
When the treaty of Paris was signed after Napoleon's defeat, the very pragmatic personalities that discussed the therms came to a common understanding that to prevent the de estabilization of europe, it was extremely necessary to garantee also the stability of France, both to prevent another revolution if France was crushed and also to prevent the balance of power of Europe to be broken with the absense of a large power like France. Basically what the treaty of Postdam emulated after the end of WWI... on the western side.
But let's say that things went different, Napoleon didn't invaded Russia, he adopted even harsh crackdown on the spanish resistence, maybe Austria was bribed by the UK to reenter the war and provocking Napoleon into creating a final solution for the Habsburgs, and then after Marching on Vienna he dissolved the empire allowing all the other ethnic groups to break free as long they continued supporting Napoleon.
Some no specified events happens, the war continues and he's defeated. On this time however the situation moves towards blaming him and France for the many coalitions, and with the germanic states, especially the restored habsburg austria wanting vegeance, and so they get the Versallies treatment.
My question is: Could the UK take over normandy, citing the rulership from William I and his successor as a argument that the United Kingdom have a claim to the area? There are some reasons for a irate UK want such thing, and it would give them a strategical position to advance to Paris in case of war.
What do you think?
When the treaty of Paris was signed after Napoleon's defeat, the very pragmatic personalities that discussed the therms came to a common understanding that to prevent the de estabilization of europe, it was extremely necessary to garantee also the stability of France, both to prevent another revolution if France was crushed and also to prevent the balance of power of Europe to be broken with the absense of a large power like France. Basically what the treaty of Postdam emulated after the end of WWI... on the western side.
But let's say that things went different, Napoleon didn't invaded Russia, he adopted even harsh crackdown on the spanish resistence, maybe Austria was bribed by the UK to reenter the war and provocking Napoleon into creating a final solution for the Habsburgs, and then after Marching on Vienna he dissolved the empire allowing all the other ethnic groups to break free as long they continued supporting Napoleon.
Some no specified events happens, the war continues and he's defeated. On this time however the situation moves towards blaming him and France for the many coalitions, and with the germanic states, especially the restored habsburg austria wanting vegeance, and so they get the Versallies treatment.
My question is: Could the UK take over normandy, citing the rulership from William I and his successor as a argument that the United Kingdom have a claim to the area? There are some reasons for a irate UK want such thing, and it would give them a strategical position to advance to Paris in case of war.
What do you think?