Sorry, but from what you have argued there can only be inferred that the Roman Emperorship is collective propietry of all the Spanish Empire's successor states, wethere they are in the New World, the Old, Africa or Asia. Each country shares 1/22th of the Empire's legitimacy (19 countries in Hispanic America plus Spain, Phillipines and Equatorial Guinea).
Well, I never say that Venezuela´s claim was exclusive: I said it was
a most rightful and legal claim, not
the most rightful and legal claim. Also, even if the rights were to be divided in "shares" as under your interpretation, not all shares will be equal. After all, some current Latin American countries declared independence as part of greater unions, today dissolved or more little. Any claim of the centroamerican republics will be weaker than Venezuela´s under that interpretation, because those countries are sharing the "share" of the USCA. The same happens with the claims of Uruguay, Paraguay, maybe Bolivia, and definitively Panama. While it is true that Venezuela was once part of a greater union (Gran Colombia) it declared independence from Spain before joining, so they had a "full" claim that they got back in 1830. In fact, is better than most because includes two "shares": The Province of Maracaibo (Modern State of Zulia) had their own declaration of Independence from Spain, which gives it a "share". It could be said that Cuba and Equatorial Guinea doesnt count, because by then, conditions were different: they were part of a reconstituted Spanish Nation, there wasnt any dissolution, sustitution and destruction of the different governments in Spain that forced them to keep their rights safe by exercising them in the same way as countries like Venezuela did, and there wasnt any upheaval, disorder or conquest in the Peninsula great enough to declare the Spanish Nation dissolved again. They got their rights as Independent and Sovereign States but they cant aspire to be heirs to something that isnt dead. The Dominican Republic definitively doesnt count, because they declared independence from HAITI, not Spain, and they asked to be part of the reconstituted Spanish Nation. Yes, it is true that later they declared independence for Spain too, but that only puts them in the same bag as Cuba and Equatorial Guinea. The Phillipines also doesnt count, because they were conquered as a "protectorate" by the United States and they got independence from them. (Yes, there is the First Filipino Republic´s declaration of Independence but as I said before, if Cuba doesnt count, that Declaration doesnt count either, for the same reasons). Puerto Rico´s "claim" is even worse, because it was conquered by the U.S and got "independence" from them. So, it doesnt matter the interpretation, the claim exist and is strong enough.