Wyragen-TXRG4P
Banned
Putting aside technical, tactical and statistical considerations on the execution of the whole thing, since this discussion section is dedicated to After 1900 and not After 1938.
Exactly how usefull would the occupation be to the 3rd reich, in economical and military matters?
Is the occupation of ex-GB going to automatically win the coming war against the Soviet-Union? Is it really going to automatically ensure German domination of the european continent? Would it be a blessing or a curse disguised as one?
With Churchill or someone like-minded fleeing to Canada and military forces in the rest of the empire continue the fight, merchant fleet would most probably stop supplying the isles.
Thus, it would be up to the european axis to feed the population of the isles and to supply ressources for local factories to run (even more so if at least part of the local industrial capacity is meant to assist the european axis war effort), with its own merchant fleet and perhapse with some Vichy French and Italian assistance.
To Hitler and much of the high command for that matter, the war itself would be even more effectively over than historically. Demobilization that followed the battle of France would be even greater than historically, even more military/scientifical projects would be canceled. In short, the victory disease would be even greater.
Mussolini might very well still start a war with Greece and this time Hitler might well decide not to assist him in that matter, since TTL Greece and Albania cannot be used as a base to strike the Ploesti oilfields.
If Greeks forces smashes their way into Albania without Hitler lifting a finger, Mussolini might well decide participating in a coming campaign against the Soviet-Union isn´t really in his interest. Alternatively, Mussolini might decide to extend Italian influence to Egypt, Jordania, Palestine, Sudan to satisfy his imperial ambitions.
Such a move could be supported by Hitler, if it open the way to Iraqi and Iranian oilfields. Helas, it would require quiet a significant efforts from the Italians and the Soviet-union would be much closed to these oilfields than Germany or Italy...
Points in axis favour would be Spain and Portugal. Portugal have a small population and because of the civil war legacy, Spain cannot fully mobilise its manpower. Not just because of casualties during this conflict but because of all the left-wing sympathisers an army of draftees would have.
Historically, the UK receives 3.3 times more lend-lease than the Soviet-Union. With it being a German occupation zone, paranoia would be running high in the US, that would allow Roosevelt to send more lend-lease and the US governement would be far more carefull as to the quality of it. This increased lend-lease would be sent to only the Soviet-Union.
Supplying it would not be overly difficult, the US would have a strong military presence in Iceland and merchant fleet that historically kept Britain supplied would do so for the Soviet-Union instead. Hitler would be more keen to avoid war with this alt-US than historically, as it would be more militarised and more agressive.
With the the British threat definitively solved, Stalin himself would this time realise Hitler intend to turn east in 1941.
The issue of Japan, the Japanese might decide to move against colonial south-east asia some 5-10 months after the victory against GB and just as IOTL, decide that preventive strike is the way to go with the US.
The US economy is mobilised for total war much earlier than IOTL as a result.
If Japan doesn´t attack the US, the port of Vladivostock might be very active after Hitler start TTL-Barbarossa.
In short, the war would probably have been over earlier instead of later. Perhapse, 1939-1940 would be called WW2 and 1941-1943 would be called WW3?
What else?
Exactly how usefull would the occupation be to the 3rd reich, in economical and military matters?
Is the occupation of ex-GB going to automatically win the coming war against the Soviet-Union? Is it really going to automatically ensure German domination of the european continent? Would it be a blessing or a curse disguised as one?
With Churchill or someone like-minded fleeing to Canada and military forces in the rest of the empire continue the fight, merchant fleet would most probably stop supplying the isles.
Thus, it would be up to the european axis to feed the population of the isles and to supply ressources for local factories to run (even more so if at least part of the local industrial capacity is meant to assist the european axis war effort), with its own merchant fleet and perhapse with some Vichy French and Italian assistance.
To Hitler and much of the high command for that matter, the war itself would be even more effectively over than historically. Demobilization that followed the battle of France would be even greater than historically, even more military/scientifical projects would be canceled. In short, the victory disease would be even greater.
Mussolini might very well still start a war with Greece and this time Hitler might well decide not to assist him in that matter, since TTL Greece and Albania cannot be used as a base to strike the Ploesti oilfields.
If Greeks forces smashes their way into Albania without Hitler lifting a finger, Mussolini might well decide participating in a coming campaign against the Soviet-Union isn´t really in his interest. Alternatively, Mussolini might decide to extend Italian influence to Egypt, Jordania, Palestine, Sudan to satisfy his imperial ambitions.
Such a move could be supported by Hitler, if it open the way to Iraqi and Iranian oilfields. Helas, it would require quiet a significant efforts from the Italians and the Soviet-union would be much closed to these oilfields than Germany or Italy...
Points in axis favour would be Spain and Portugal. Portugal have a small population and because of the civil war legacy, Spain cannot fully mobilise its manpower. Not just because of casualties during this conflict but because of all the left-wing sympathisers an army of draftees would have.
Historically, the UK receives 3.3 times more lend-lease than the Soviet-Union. With it being a German occupation zone, paranoia would be running high in the US, that would allow Roosevelt to send more lend-lease and the US governement would be far more carefull as to the quality of it. This increased lend-lease would be sent to only the Soviet-Union.
Supplying it would not be overly difficult, the US would have a strong military presence in Iceland and merchant fleet that historically kept Britain supplied would do so for the Soviet-Union instead. Hitler would be more keen to avoid war with this alt-US than historically, as it would be more militarised and more agressive.
With the the British threat definitively solved, Stalin himself would this time realise Hitler intend to turn east in 1941.
The issue of Japan, the Japanese might decide to move against colonial south-east asia some 5-10 months after the victory against GB and just as IOTL, decide that preventive strike is the way to go with the US.
The US economy is mobilised for total war much earlier than IOTL as a result.
If Japan doesn´t attack the US, the port of Vladivostock might be very active after Hitler start TTL-Barbarossa.
In short, the war would probably have been over earlier instead of later. Perhapse, 1939-1940 would be called WW2 and 1941-1943 would be called WW3?
What else?