To everyone saying this would mean earlier Stuarts on the throne, no, it would mean earlier Stewarts on the throne. I realise the distinction may seem pedantic, but James VI/I was the first direct descendant of Margaret Tudor to use the French spelling, as he was of his father's house, the spelling having been changed by Matthew Stewart during a period in France.
EDIT: I will concede that Mary, Queen of Scots, probably had her name spelled interchangeably, but she was, at least, born a Stewart, which won't even happen ITTL.
EDIT: I will concede that Mary, Queen of Scots, probably had her name spelled interchangeably, but she was, at least, born a Stewart, which won't even happen ITTL.