Proposed scenario:
Germany invades Poland in 1939 as in the Original Timeline, France and the UK respond pretty much as in the OTL, and then Germany goes into Norway, Benelux, and France in 1940 as in the OTL resulting in the Bordeaux Armistice, as in the OTL. Instead of fighting on, the UK (due to different political leadership) comes to terms with Germany and the fighting is over in Western Europe by September 1940.
Part of the all-round peace-terms which Hitler compels the Western Europeans to come to includes trade deals with all the Axis powers (Germany, Italy, and Japan) for various goods which they need, including (in Japan's case) oil.
How inevitable does a war at some point in the 1940's between the USA and Imperial Japan become in this scenario? Assume that the Japanese continue to do unpleasant things in China, which political elements in the USA agitate/lobby against.
France, the UK, and Holland are compelled by the terms that Nazi Germany obliged them to sign to continue to provide Japan with various priority goods, including oil, so any USA attempt to embargo oil, at the very least, loses some of its severity for Japan.
Would the USA eventually move towards some sort of aggressive military stance against Japan, simply on account of ongoing Japanese activities/atrocities in China?
Or, if nothing happens any earlier, would the Japanese attempt to annex the Philippines, in the mid-1940's, after the USA has granted them independence, and provoke a response?
Does an Axis invasion of Russia (if one takes place in mid-1941) at all factor into calculations as to whether a USA-Japan war happens?
Germany invades Poland in 1939 as in the Original Timeline, France and the UK respond pretty much as in the OTL, and then Germany goes into Norway, Benelux, and France in 1940 as in the OTL resulting in the Bordeaux Armistice, as in the OTL. Instead of fighting on, the UK (due to different political leadership) comes to terms with Germany and the fighting is over in Western Europe by September 1940.
Part of the all-round peace-terms which Hitler compels the Western Europeans to come to includes trade deals with all the Axis powers (Germany, Italy, and Japan) for various goods which they need, including (in Japan's case) oil.
How inevitable does a war at some point in the 1940's between the USA and Imperial Japan become in this scenario? Assume that the Japanese continue to do unpleasant things in China, which political elements in the USA agitate/lobby against.
France, the UK, and Holland are compelled by the terms that Nazi Germany obliged them to sign to continue to provide Japan with various priority goods, including oil, so any USA attempt to embargo oil, at the very least, loses some of its severity for Japan.
Would the USA eventually move towards some sort of aggressive military stance against Japan, simply on account of ongoing Japanese activities/atrocities in China?
Or, if nothing happens any earlier, would the Japanese attempt to annex the Philippines, in the mid-1940's, after the USA has granted them independence, and provoke a response?
Does an Axis invasion of Russia (if one takes place in mid-1941) at all factor into calculations as to whether a USA-Japan war happens?