Could there ever have been the formation of two distinct Chinas, one centered around a northern, Mandarin-speaking culture, and a southern, Cantonese-speaking one?
Northerners have historically viewed Southerners as being "hicks" this is true in both America and China.
In fact it seems to be true in just about every country except England where it's the other way around - we just have to be different
The Cantonese thing is interesting because I was also under the impression that it was a far more widespread and influential language in China than you and Hendryk describe - as you say, probably because of the disproportionate number of Cantonese-speaking immigrants to the UK and USA. Notably a lot of Chinese restaurants in the UK describe themselves as vending "Chinese and Cantonese food", as the UK idea of what 'Chinese' food represents is I think in reality just restricted to one area of China.
Well, that doesnt make the quetsion impossible, it only extends it:
What if the southern lingual groups 1) didnt see themselves as Han anymore 2) formed own, distinctive cultures and nationalities and 3) had own states?
In fact it seems to be true in just about every country except England where it's the other way around - we just have to be different
The Cantonese thing is interesting because I was also under the impression that it was a far more widespread and influential language in China than you and Hendryk describe - as you say, probably because of the disproportionate number of Cantonese-speaking immigrants to the UK and USA. Notably a lot of Chinese restaurants in the UK describe themselves as vending "Chinese and Cantonese food", as the UK idea of what 'Chinese' food represents is I think in reality just restricted to one area of China.
Now you're getting personalLike I said, Guangdong (the Cantonese province) is about as influential on China as the state of Georgia is on the USA... or Yorkshire on the UK, eh? One of many common provinces.
The Cantonese thing is interesting because I was also under the impression that it was a far more widespread and influential language in China than you and Hendryk describe - as you say, probably because of the disproportionate number of Cantonese-speaking immigrants to the UK and USA. Notably a lot of Chinese restaurants in the UK describe themselves as vending "Chinese and Cantonese food", as the UK idea of what 'Chinese' food represents is I think in reality just restricted to one area of China.
Rather than making herself "Empress of India" in 1877, Victoria takes the title "Empress of China"?
Like I said, Guangdong (the Cantonese province) is about as influential on China as the state of Georgia is on the USA... or Yorkshire on the UK, eh? One of many common provinces.
Why not?Imperial titles don't work like that
Not necessarilly. If she takes the title of "Wang" rather than "Huangdi", it won't be seen as an assumption of power over all of china; at the same time, she could assume the title "Empress of India" as well as "Queen of Guangdong" or whatever the hell it would be.she can't take the title "Empress of China" so long as there is still a Chinese Emperor in Peking. In OTL, the Imperial title of India was vacant after the last Mughal Emperor was deposed.
The thread title says "Distinctly Cantonese-speaking culture in China". I'm just conforming it to the thread's titular requests.And why would the British enforce Cantonese as a second language?
But either way, I don't think that there are enough Cantonese speakers for a culture of their own. Only 70-80 million speak it, IIRC.
That's why a very early POD is necessary for this to happen. But I still think there has to be a reason that Cantonese is the second biggest dialect of Chinese.
Well in my TL I have the ROC, with massive foriegn support and the fact that the PRC's electricity was taken out by an EMP, "liberate" the Cantonese speaking area's...