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#1
October 27th, 2012, 07:33 PM
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AHC: French Burgundy
Your challenge is, with a PoD between 900-1000 AD, to have the territory of the Kingdom of Arles belong to the Kingdom of France. Bonus points if it can be done before Otto the Great's reign. How can it be done?
EDIT: I did some research, and to add on to this, I have a question-why did Holy Roman Emperors Henry II and Conrad II demand that Rudolph III make them his successor(s)? Why didn't the French King, Henry I, do the same? Was it because he was only a year into his rule and too inexperienced/new to the throne? Did he have other matters to attend to? Or was there another reason? Last edited by Shtudmuffin; October 27th, 2012 at 10:26 PM.. 
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#2
October 28th, 2012, 02:29 AM
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C'mon guys, I know you're there.
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#3
October 28th, 2012, 02:35 AM
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My understanding is that in the considered timeframe the King of France had little to nothing say at all anywhere close the considered area. He was basically little more than the Count of Paris and a primus inter pares in the larger realm. Things changed considerably in the subsequent two centuries, but at this time, I gather that Germany was indeed marginally MORE cohesive than France. "Cohesive" by contemporary standards of course, that is not a big deal in either country.
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#4
October 28th, 2012, 03:31 AM
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Have Bertha of Burgundy be able to bear a surviving child with Robert I of France.
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