My impression is that Austria treated its minorities better than the Hungarians. What if Austria, when Austria-Hungary was established in 1867, had trasferred most of the non-Hungarian-speaking areas of Hungary to the Austrian parts of the monarchy? I assume that the minorities themselves would have preferred this to remaining part of Hungary. Probably they would have preferred a similar status as Austria and Hungary (if not independence), but I would think that being ruled directly by the less oppressive Austrians would be preferable to staying as part of Hungary.
Would Austria have the power to do this or would it lead to Hungary splitting away from the Habsburgs? I assume that Austria in this case would attempt a "divide and rule" strategy? Is it possible that they would even try it or would they not care whether the areas were ruled by Austria or Hungary as long as they remained part of the Habsburg monarchy? An advantage could be that one would avoid some of the dissatisfaction that resulted from the Hungarian oppression.
Would Austria have the power to do this or would it lead to Hungary splitting away from the Habsburgs? I assume that Austria in this case would attempt a "divide and rule" strategy? Is it possible that they would even try it or would they not care whether the areas were ruled by Austria or Hungary as long as they remained part of the Habsburg monarchy? An advantage could be that one would avoid some of the dissatisfaction that resulted from the Hungarian oppression.