How would late 13th century Scottish history develop if Alexander III. didn't die due to a riding accident in 1286 ?

His death led to a major succession crisis in Scottish history, to a period of regency for his grand-daughter and potential heiress Margaret of Norway, and eventually culminated in a 10 year long period of tension and in English-Scottish wars that lasted since 1296 for nearly 20 years, until coming to an end at the Battle of Banockburn in 1314.

Without Alexander's death, Edward I. would not pursue a renewed interest in claims to the Scottish throne. He wisely did so in a "proxy" way, through support of allies among the other claimants - most notably John Balliol, who did indeed eventually gain the throne in 1292, after a six years long interregnum. (Margaret of Norway died in 1290, leaving a more direct succession impossible.) Balliol's vassals and noblemen gradually grew discontent with what they saw as him being a puppet to Edward I., so they rebelled against John in the mid 1290s and he himself abdicated in July 1296, after a series of defeats by Edward I. (most notably the taking of Dunbar Castle). In 1296 and the following year, Andrew Murray (a.k.a. de Moray) and William Wallace united parts of the Scottish nobility and started a counter-offensive against the English invasion, kicking off the aforementioned period of wars.

So, let's say Alexander III. lives for five years more, or ten years more, or even longer. Though he was old and had lost all three of his children already before his death in OTL, was there any hope for him for gaining a male or female heir ? Maybe even a slightly more distantly related scion, even in case his grand-daughter died in the ATL as well ? Would Edward I. and his own heirs keep claims to the Scottish throne on the backburner if the OTL crisis never happened (or occured some years or decades later) ?
 
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How would late 13th century Scottish history develop if Alexander III. didn't die due to a riding accident in 1286 ?

His death led to a major succession crisis in Scottish history, to a period of regency for his grand-daughter and potential heiress Margaret of Norway, and eventually culminated in a 10 year long period of tension and in English-Scottish wars that lasted since 1296 for nearly 20 years, until coming to an end at the Battle of Banockburn in 1314.

Without Alexander's death, Edward I. would not pursue a renewed interest in claims to the Scottish throne. He wisely did so in a "proxy" way, through support of allies among the other claimants - most notably John Balliol, who did indeed eventually gain the throne in 1292, after a six years long interregnum. (Margaret of Norway died in 1290, leaving a more direct succession impossible.) Balliol's vassals and noblemen gradually grew discontent with what they saw as him being a puppet to Edward I., so they rebelled against John in the mid 1290s and he himself abdicated in July 1296, after a series of defeats by Edward I. (most notably the taking of Dunbar Castle). In 1296 and the following year, Andrew Murray (a.k.a. de Moray) and William Wallace united parts of the Scottish nobility and started a counter-offensive against the English invasion, kicking off the aforementioned period of wars.

So, let's say Alexander III. lives for five years more, or ten years more, or even longer. Though he was old and had lost all three of his children already before his death in OTL, was there any hope for him for gaining a male or female heir ? Maybe even a slightly more distantly related scion, even in case his grand-daughter died in the ATL as well ? Would Edward I. and his own heirs keep claims to the Scottish throne on the backburner if the OTL crisis never happened (or occured some years or decades later) ?
IIRC his wife was actually pregnant at the time of his death, but the child was stillborn.
So not impossible.
 
Margaret the Maid was only 3 in 1286 so even 10 years, assuming Alex III remains childless, would still result in a regency.
However it does give time to arrange her marriage to one of the other competitors:

Great_Cause_Tree.jpg
 
One of the Bruces seems most likely for that, given the current Lord of Annandale had been regent for Alexander in his minority and had been proclaimed his heir before his first child was born.
 
One of the Bruces seems most likely for that, given the current Lord of Annandale had been regent for Alexander in his minority and had been proclaimed his heir before his first child was born.

Interesting, I did not know that !
 
One of the Bruces seems most likely for that, given the current Lord of Annandale had been regent for Alexander in his minority and had been proclaimed his heir before his first child was born.

Margaret the Maid was only 3 in 1286 so even 10 years, assuming Alex III remains childless, would still result in a regency.
However it does give time to arrange her marriage to one of the other competitors:

But wouldn't her father Eric also have influence in who she would marry? He might simply not see a Scottish noble as an attractive option, especially if English might offer him more advantages.
 
But wouldn't her father Eric also have influence in who she would marry? He might simply not see a Scottish noble as an attractive option, especially if English might offer him more advantages.

A good point, which makes OwenM's even more important in this discussion, so it seems.

Any other ideas on the topic ?
 
One of the Bruces seems most likely for that, given the current Lord of Annandale had been regent for Alexander in his minority and had been proclaimed his heir before his first child was born.

Interestingly so was Margaret following his son's death

But wouldn't her father Eric also have influence in who she would marry? He might simply not see a Scottish noble as an attractive option, especially if English might offer him more advantages.

Well, OTL he had a provisional arrangement to marry her to King Edward's son. But that was when she was Queen Regnant. TTL would Queen Consort be enough to sway him to a Scottish Noble or would he go for Prince Edward with a view to them contesting the Scottish Throne in a decade or so?
 
Well, OTL he had a provisional arrangement to marry her to King Edward's son. But that was when she was Queen Regnant. TTL would Queen Consort be enough to sway him to a Scottish Noble or would he go for Prince Edward with a view to them contesting the Scottish Throne in a decade or so?

Seems like the million florin question. :D

Which of these two was inherently more likely ?
 
Seems like the million florin question. :D

Which of these two was inherently more likely ?

Well, let's assume that Alexander III lives 10 years more (making him die almost as old as his father). There is no reason for Yolande of Dreux not to have children from him, as she had at least six children from her second marriage.
So, I assume that Margaret would only become heir if all his children from the second marriage are dead or stillborn. Maybe she could be the heir if his only surviving children are female, but still he could declare that his daughters could have precedence over his grandaughter.
So, by the time Alexander finally dies, if his wife keeps giving him children, Eric II might already have Margaret betrothed to someone in order to solve Norwegian problems (for example, after the peace with Denmark, she could have been promised to prince Christopher, who IOTL became Christopher II of Denmark).
 
So, by the time Alexander finally dies, if his wife keeps giving him children, Eric II might already have Margaret betrothed to someone in order to solve Norwegian problems (for example, after the peace with Denmark, she could have been promised to prince Christopher, who IOTL became Christopher II of Denmark).

That's an awesome butterflying, right there. :cool: Would such a side-branching of the Scottish events potentially deeply affect Norwegian and Danish history ?
 
Well, if we assume Alex III manages another heir then Margaret is most likely married off to Valdemar Magnusson who became Duke of Osterland/Finland - since OTL Eric remarried to Isobel Bruce and their daughter did so.

That has butterflies on the history of Finland and Sweden and the Baltic.

Scottish wise, if Alex III's new heir is female then depending on her age she'd be married to a Bruce, a Comyn, or a spare English Royal.
If male then he'd likely marry similarly, though it would not be unusual if he was married off to his halfniece Margaret and thus alter who Valdemar marries.
 
Well, if we assume Alex III manages another heir then Margaret is most likely married off to Valdemar Magnusson who became Duke of Osterland/Finland - since OTL Eric remarried to Isobel Bruce and their daughter did so.

That has butterflies on the history of Finland and Sweden and the Baltic.

Scottish wise, if Alex III's new heir is female then depending on her age she'd be married to a Bruce, a Comyn, or a spare English Royal.
If male then he'd likely marry similarly, though it would not be unusual if he was married off to his halfniece Margaret and thus alter who Valdemar marries.

I think only the Habsburgs and the Braganzas ever married nieces to uncles, and if I'm not mistaken it had happened only once for each, at a much later period.
Maybe his heir (Alexander IV?) could be married by one of Edward I's granddaughters. The daughters of Joan of Acre and Gilbert de Clare would be of the right age for him.
 
Well, if we assume Alex III manages another heir then Margaret is most likely married off to Valdemar Magnusson who became Duke of Osterland/Finland - since OTL Eric remarried to Isobel Bruce and their daughter did so. That has butterflies on the history of Finland and Sweden and the Baltic.

Exactly ! This is part of the reason why I like this POD. It could cause quite a few ripples in European history of the period, even if the scale might not be that large and immediate.

Scottish wise, if Alex III's new heir is female then depending on her age she'd be married to a Bruce, a Comyn, or a spare English Royal.

I see.

If male then he'd likely marry similarly, though it would not be unusual if he was married off to his halfniece Margaret and thus alter who Valdemar marries.

I think only the Habsburgs and the Braganzas ever married nieces to uncles, and if I'm not mistaken it had happened only once for each, at a much later period.

Yeah, I think so. I haven't heard about such practices in most other European Houses. Obviously, a desperation to continue the dynasty might drive even a more minor House to try this kind of betrothal and marriage, but I doubt that many people considered this a first option solution most of the time.

Maybe his heir (Alexander IV?) could be married by one of Edward I's granddaughters. The daughters of Joan of Acre and Gilbert de Clare would be of the right age for him.

That would generally put the English and Scottish monarchies closer together, right ?
 
It would probably be more like a continuation of the policies of his father, whose first marriage was to a sister of Edward I.

True dat !

One of the peculiarities of the then Scottish dynasties politics towards Edward was not considering him as a potential foe (which he ultimately turned into, though only after Balliol rebelled against him as a semi-vassal/ally).
 
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