Dutch Bengal?

[Dangimill]

Is it plausible for William III to have, in order to maintain popular favor in the Netherlands, reorganized the British/Dutch trading companies? Specifically, say, giving British holdings in India to the VOC and uniting the British East and West India companies for trade exclusively in the western hemisphere?

[wemayberry]

Originally Posted by Dangimill

Is it plausible for William III to have, in order to maintain popular favor in the Netherlands, reorganized the British/Dutch trading companies? Specifically, say, giving British holdings in India to the VOC and uniting the British East and West India companies for trade exclusively in the western hemisphere?

Yes, it's plausible if done in 1690.as the British East India Company had just lost Child's War and is now forced to rebuild their holdings. Any later and it's likely to be opposed as the East India company would have restablished it's bases and was once again making money. This would lead his British subjects to be less willing to make concessions as the West Indies was far less profitable at the time.