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Old September 27th, 2011, 01:50 AM
raharris1973 raharris1973 is offline
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Did US forces in philippines in 1941 have meaningful offensive capability?

Samuel Eliot Morison and later political scientist John Mueller have
made the argument that the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, although
intended to guard the flank of the southward advance into the East
Indies and Malaya,was actually superfluous to that campaign (and the
battle for the Philippines) because the US Pacific fleet units at
Pearl were not in shape to intervene effectively in western Pacific
waters. *They further argue that even if the US had the freedom of
action to try to send the Pacific fleet to Asia after December 8th,
the chances of major fleet and crew losses in deep waters in the areas
of the Japanese mandates were high, and the chances of of successfully
preventing Japanese conquests of the Indies and Malaya (and
Philippines) by such a desperate intervention were *nil*.
The thing that Mueller and Morison both left out of their analyses was
what US forces in the Philippines were capable of doing in Southeast
Asia.
The US had growing ground and air forces in the Philippines, and the
Asiatic Fleet in its waters. *The platforms there were generally
inferior in quantity and quality to those available in Hawaii and
CONUS (except for some bomber aircraft), but they were all positioned
much closer to the scene of Japanese fighting with the British and
Dutch than the forces at Pearl.
Supposing the Japanese attack the British and Dutch throughout
Southeast Asia by December 8th, 1941, while leaving US territories and
assets alone, and add some of the forces they actually allocated to
the Pearl and Philippines attacks to strengthen the Indies, Malaya and
New Guinea attacks, what risks would this have imposed on the Japanese
in the *near* term, like through March-April 1942?
Further supposing that the Americans make the political decision to
declare war within a week of 8 December, begin providing immediate
covert support and are willing to use all available forces in any
operations no matter how high the risk to aid the British and Dutch
and oppose the Japanese from say the 18th of December onward, could
they make themselves into a critical threat to Japanese operations, or
just a mere annoyance?
To sketch it out further, let's assume that from the 9th of December,
the US command in the Far East begins full intelligence sharing with
the British and Dutch, and permits their units to take refuge in
Philippine terrritory and waters if it becomes tactically necessary
and proper? *Further, US fleet units that may happen to be in British
and Dutch Southeast Asian ports do not retreat from the combat zones
and fire on the Japanese if fired upon. *Finally, in the most
aggressive initial policy, from the 8th through the 18th, US submarine
commanders are authorized to attack Japanese vessels from submerged
positions where there is plausible deniability and this can be
attributed to British submarines.
After 18 December, open participation by fleet and air units is
authorized.
If under these circumstances, the Japanese stay focused on their
territorial and force-on-force objectives against the British and
Dutch, do not escalate against the Americans and only fire on American
units that fire on them in the middle of combat zones outside US held
territory (ie, the Philippines and Guam), at least through the rest of
December, would Japanese progress in occupying the Indies, Malaya and
Singapore *have been any less than in real life?
I say no. *If the Japanese remained sanguine about flank threats their
conquest of the British and Dutch empires in Southeast Asia would have
remained on the historical schedule or ahead of it. *The main
difficulty they would face longer term would simply be that when the
Japanese turn to deal with the Americans in the Philippines, the
Philippines can be defended for longer. *However, *effective* use of
U.S. assets from east of the international dateline to help the
Philippines before May 1942 would be impossible, and such forces even
for the remainder of 1942, or through the fall at least, would *be at
most an irritant rather than a decisive block to Japanese forces in
the Philippines, and could achieve this irritating effect, only at
high risk to themselves.

*
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Old September 27th, 2011, 01:55 AM
raharris1973 raharris1973 is offline
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Link to original John mueller article

http://polisci.osu.edu/faculty/jmueller/is1991-2.pdf

Mueller also quotes Samuel eliot Morison to boost his case
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Old September 27th, 2011, 02:00 AM
KyleB KyleB is offline
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Seriously though, the Japanese couldn't afford to leave the Americans alone. The aircraft in the Philippines and the navy at Pearl were very strong on paper. The war was going to happen anyway, so the Japanese did the semi-rational thing by hitting the US with a preemptive strike.
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  #4  
Old September 27th, 2011, 02:23 AM
jony663 jony663 is offline
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The American submarines were not capable of anything but close inshore patrols. The S Boats were almost as dangerous to there crews than to the enemy.
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Old September 27th, 2011, 02:56 AM
CalBear CalBear is offline
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Uh, no, they weren't. In point of fact they served throughout the War and gave very good service. In the war's first year the S-boats WERE the U.S. Submarine force, fighting in deplorable conditions, with insufficient support, and in constant danger.

They achieved numerous kills (48 in total), and as the far longer range and more modern fleet boats came into service in the Pacific were sent off to the Aleutians where they served as the main U.S. offensive force until late 1943.

It should also be noted that, unlike their far more modern sisters, the S Boats Mk 10 torpedo actually worked as advertized.
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Old September 27th, 2011, 03:10 AM
Cook Cook is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by raharris1973 View Post
Samuel Eliot Morison and later political scientist John Mueller have made the argument that the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, although intended to guard the flank of the southward advance into the East Indies and Malaya,was actually superfluous to that campaign (and the battle for the Philippines) because the US Pacific fleet units at Pearl were not in shape to intervene effectively in western Pacific waters.

Morrison and Mueller overlook the fact that the principal targets of the attack on Pearl Harbour were the US aircraft carriers Enterprise, Lexington and Saratoga. Enterprise was delivering aircraft to Wake Island and returned to Pearl on the afternoon of December 7th, Lexington was conducting a similar mission to Midway Island and the Saratoga was on the West Coast of the United States undergoing an overhaul. Had the Enterprise and Lexington (or worse, all three) been in port they’d have been destroyed and the Pacific War would have been considerably harder for the allies.

An attack on the Southern Resource Area without attacking Pearl Harbour risked having the American’s challenging the forces attacking Malaya, The Philippines and the Netherlands East Indies.
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  #7  
Old October 16th, 2011, 02:28 AM
jony663 jony663 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CalBear View Post

They achieved numerous kills (48 in total), and as the far longer range and more modern fleet boats came into service in the Pacific were sent off to the Aleutians where they served as the main U.S. offensive force until.
I would like to know were you found this number of kills. The US Navy used them as training boats as quickly as possible.

They could of been useful in PI if they were off the right beaches, but they were not offensive weapons.
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