As the tin says, what if Mary and Elizabeth, for whatever reason, predecease Edward? Does Lady Jane Grey become Queen upon his death? How would her reign go?
Well technically the succession went Mary Queen of Scots, her aunt Margaret Douglas, Countess of Lennox, Lennox's son Henry, Lord Darnley, then Frances, Duchess of Suffolk and the Grey sisters. That being said, the third Succession act/Henry VIII's Will excluded the descendants of Margaret, Queen of Scots, so legally the Duchess of Suffolk would have been the heiress and Queen Regnant.
As for a war, it depends. The Catholics were the majority in England at this time but Mary was a foreigner and the English were notoriously xenophobic. So we could see a war between the Lennoxs (next in line after Mary) and the Suffolks (next in line legally). Of course, Mary and Elizabeth had popular support at the time of their accessions, being the daughters of Henry VIII and the champions of their respective religions, something Margaret and Frances would both lack. So either way it would probably be between Lennox and Suffolk and who would win is anyones guess.
Inevitable war with Scotland, as the Stuarts come from the more senior female line. They might be backed by the Church if Jane remains Anglican.
Queen Frances followed by Queen Jane.
A lot would depend on who Jane developed into. If the PoD took place early enough interested parties might take charge of her as the heiress presumptive.
Of course, Mary and Elizabeth had popular support at the time of their accessions, being the daughters of Henry VIII and the champions of their respective religions, something Margaret and Frances would both lack.
Well technically the succession went Mary Queen of Scots, her aunt Margaret Douglas, Countess of Lennox, Lennox's son Henry, Lord Darnley, then Frances, Duchess of Suffolk and the Grey sisters. That being said, the third Succession act/Henry VIII's Will excluded the descendants of Margaret, Queen of Scots, so legally the Duchess of Suffolk would have been the heiress and Queen Regnant.
As for a war, it depends. The Catholics were the majority in England at this time but Mary was a foreigner and the English were notoriously xenophobic. So we could see a war between the Lennoxs (next in line after Mary) and the Suffolks (next in line legally). Of course, Mary and Elizabeth had popular support at the time of their accessions, being the daughters of Henry VIII and the champions of their respective religions, something Margaret and Frances would both lack. So either way it would probably be between Lennox and Suffolk and who would win is anyones guess.
So there's no way that Jane Grey could plausibly end up Queen for longer than she did OTL?
These speculations are all very well, but they almost all rest on the same flawed assumption, that the heir presumptive, in the absence of Edwards bastard sisters was Francis Grey, the problem is, that she was not. By the time of Edwards death, Francis had twice been removed from the succession.
The first time by Heny VIII, then by his son King Edward, this meant that the legal successor, was the heir to the body, of Francis, Queen Jane Dudley.
So there's no way that Jane Grey could plausibly end up Queen for longer than she did OTL?
On reading this thread I became aware of a very intriguing question, that no one seemed to be questioning, 'Why was Francis Grey passed over for her daughter Jane in OTL?'That's simply not true. Edward had no right or power to unilaterally change the succession. At no time was Frances, Duchess of Suffolk legally excluded from the throne. Neither the Third Act of Succession nor the Will of Henry VIII bypassed Frances in favor of Jane. Why would it? I mean what would happen if Frances was excluded from the succession then gave birth to a son? Would that son, whose rights would supersede his sisters, be ignored because his mother was herself excluded? I doubt it.
As to the succession of the Crown, it shall go to Prince Edward and the heirs of his body. In default, to Henry's children by his present wife, Queen Catharine, or any future wife. In default, to his daughter Mary and the heirs of her body, upon condition that she shall not marry without the written and sealed consent of a majority of the surviving members of the Privy Council appointed by him to his son Prince Edward. In default, to his daughter Elizabeth upon like condition. In default, to the heirs of the body of Lady Frances, eldest daughter of his late sister the French Queen. In default, to those of Lady Elyanore, second daughter of the said French Queen. And in default, to his right heirs. Either Mary or Elizabeth, failing to observe the conditions aforesaid, shall forfeit all right to the succession.
It is not my claim but that of Professor Ives, and if you failed to notice it from my searches on the internet you are far from being alone.Here's the primary document:
http://www.british-history.ac.uk/letters-papers-hen8/vol21/no2/pp313-348
Scroll down to "634. Henry VIII.'s Will." This is the key passage:
It does look like Frances is skipped, although her heirs (Jane, Catherine, and Mary Grey) are in the succession ahead of the Stuart lines (descended from Henry's older sister Margaret: the royal Stuarts from her first marriage, and the Lennox/Darnley Stuarts from her second marriage). I'm not sure why, this being the first I'd noticed this clause. I suspect Amelikite's speculation, that Henry hoped for Frances to have a son and thus avoid a female heir from a collateral line, is correct.
The Branden boys are omitted from the will because when it was written in 1546, the first Henry Branden was already dead (died in 1534) and the younger Branden boys didn't have royal blood (their mother was Charles Branden's fourth wife, Catherine Willoughby).
Edward's will is constitutionally awkward. Henry's will was specifically authorized by Parliament in the Third Act of Succession (1543), which clarified the succession through Henry's children and the heirs of their bodies (Edward, then any future legitimate children, then Mary, then Elizabeth, with provisions that Henry could set conditions to automatically disinherit Mary, Elizabeth, and their heirs if they violated the conditions), then gave "The King's Highness" full power to define the succession beyond the point where it was specified by statute, either by will or by letters patent.
http://www.archive.org/stream/cu31924030504322#page/n423/mode/2up
By my reading, it's unclear from the text whether the powers to disinherit Mary and Elizabeth and to set the line of succession after them by will or letters patent was vested in Henry personally or if it would also apply to future monarchs. By plain meaning, the phrase seems like it would apply to any future king, but it's used several times elsewhere in the Act in contexts where it seems to refer to Henry specifically (e.g. "The Lady Mary the King's Highness's daughter").