Earlier Indo-Iranian migration and no collapse of IVC

If we have a PoD where, for whatever hand-waving causes, the Indo-Iranians are able to move earlier into the Iranian Plateau and Indus Valley and so on. Partly the collapse of the Indus Valley Civilization was a combination of drought, a decline in trade with Egypt and Mesopotamia, and the invasion of the Indo-European peoples that became the spectrum today of Indo-Iranians.

How would a migration that occurred when the IVC was at its height and not stressed by other events change history? Could we see the IVC incorporate the proto-Indians and the rest of India is spared the influx of the Sanskrit language? Iranians become the only descendants without the spectrum of Indo-Iranians spreading east? The IVC was quite advanced with indoor plumbing and sewers, a grid-system of city streets, and proto-writing. Could become a barrier even to the later Median and Persian Empires (and even Alexander the Great) if those empires are not butterflied away.

The main cause of the collapse was the Third Millennium Drought.

frustrated progressive said:

The main cause of the collapse was the Third Millennium Drought.

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It was not the "main cause" and it was only one stressor. History is complex and it was an interwoven problem of drought, decrease in trade, and the migration of the Indo-European peoples. If the Indo-Europeans are pushed back/assimilated; then when the drought comes, maybe there's also not a decline in trade as the Indo-Iranians are not disrupting things and instead are supporting trade as they've settled down. Now the drought is manageable and survivable.

If the drought is reconstructible today, it must have been major, and could be the reason underlying the other two, i.e. why people from further inland invaded and why Partners had less to trade?

That's the order I would expect:

Major drought > famine > economic collapse and disruption in trade > military weakness > successful IE invasions

Mongo said:

That's the order I would expect:

Major drought > famine > economic collapse and disruption in trade > military weakness > successful IE invasions

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Same with me. The proto-Aryans didn't even migrate past the Hindu Kush until after the Harappans collapsed.

What was the cause of the third millenium drought that led to the downfall of the IVC? If such a drought hadn't occured, what changes could it have made in the history of the west Asia in general and the subcontinent in particular?

Kishan said:

What was the cause of the third millenium drought that led to the downfall of the IVC? If such a drought hadn't occured, what changes could it have made in the history of the west Asia in general and the subcontinent in particular?

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Isn't that essentially ASB?

Napoleonrules said:

It was not the "main cause" and it was only one stressor. History is complex and it was an interwoven problem of drought, decrease in trade, and the migration of the Indo-European peoples. If the Indo-Europeans are pushed back/assimilated; then when the drought comes, maybe there's also not a decline in trade as the Indo-Iranians are not disrupting things and instead are supporting trade as they've settled down. Now the drought is manageable and survivable.

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wrong
The harrapa system of irrigation and drainage depended on weather when that went to shit, like any scen people the harrapans migrated west to better areas. Weather was not a stressor but the principle cause and indo aryan invasion is a loe. Probably migration but that ocured in 1900 well past harrapa city abandonment.

Fredrick II Barbarossa said:

wrong
The harrapa system of irrigation and drainage depended on weather when that went to shit, like any scen people the harrapans migrated west to better areas. Weather was not a stressor but the principle cause and indo aryan invasion is a loe. Probably migration but that ocured in 1900 well past harrapa city abandonment.

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The negative climative conditions must have been the primary reason for the downfall of the Harappan Civilization. The Aryan Invasion Theory appears to be a fabrication of history with ulterior motives with little historical evidence. But did the Harappans migrate to the west or the east? To the west lay already populated areas while the east had uninhabited forest regions. Migrants looking for new lands to settle must have been attracted to the virgin lands rather than already populated countries where they would have to confront former inhabitants. Hence they must have moved east to the Gangetic plains, and in course of time south into the peninsula.

Kishan said:

The negative climative conditions must have been the primary reason for the downfall of the Harappan Civilization. The Aryan Invasion Theory appears to be a fabrication of history with ulterior motives with little historical evidence. But did the Harappans migrate to the west or the east? To the west lay already populated areas while the east had uninhabited forest regions. Migrants looking for new lands to settle must have been attracted to the virgin lands rather than already populated countris where they

would have to confront former inhabitants. Hence they must have moved east to the Gangetic plains, and in course of time south into the peninsula.

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Peetty much. Using occams razpr simplest explanationis circa 1900 ha re apa cities abandpned due to weather conditions. Indo aryans arrive. Over time due to pppularion densities they get assimilated into local societoes. Once assimilation happens shift from vedic to local gods. Caste system develop like everywhere else with a stratiied society. Only difference is here that system is codified explicitly rathe than de facto implicitly and this system originated among tribal so ironically contrry to many indian historians csre came aboit as a result of the intermingling of pre existing indo european, tribal and dravidian social structures.