Derek Jackson
May 26th, 2005, 09:45 PM
This is a more general query but I suspect that folk using this forum might have answers.
Between 1789 and 1814 who executed more people Britain or France (including "ordinary decent criminals")
Is it true that the "White Terror" after the Bourbon restoration saw more executions than the "Red Terror" of the revolution?
Between 1789 and 1814 who executed more people Britain or France (including "ordinary decent criminals")
Is it true that the "White Terror" after the Bourbon restoration saw more executions than the "Red Terror" of the revolution?