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Redem
September 6th, 2008, 03:33 AM
WI people Some british people in 1718 had found a time rupture to 1187 and started to provide Richard I with weapons from the 18th century

godsown1991
September 6th, 2008, 03:38 AM
WI people Some british people in 1718 had found a time rupture to 1187 and started to provide Richard I with weapons from the 18th century

Most likely, he'd think that they're devils and have them killed.

People with weapons that belch fire and kill from far away who suddenly appear out of nowhere? Yeah, demons, definitely. Off with their heads!

oscarzoalaster
September 6th, 2008, 07:57 AM
WI people Some british people in 1718 had found a time rupture to 1187 and started to provide Richard I with weapons from the 18th century


Britain was in an expansionist phase at the time. I think that the discoverer, or the British government if it became public knowledge, would attempt to exert control over territory beyond the 'rupture'.

Once Britain conquered/assimilated the England of 1187 (perhaps offering Richard I a 1718 British princess and some Dukedoms in 1187 France larger than England) England conquers 1187 France, just because they can. Then they go about recreating their American colonies, adding South America to the mix. Eventually the amount of wealth that comes back through the 'rupture' starts to affect what Britain does in the '1700's' side of the 'rupture'.

Ion_StormH
September 6th, 2008, 09:24 AM
Britain was in an expansionist phase at the time. I think that the discoverer, or the British government if it became public knowledge, would attempt to exert control over territory beyond the 'rupture'.

Once Britain conquered/assimilated the England of 1187 (perhaps offering Richard I a 1718 British princess and some Dukedoms in 1187 France larger than England) England conquers 1187 France, just because they can. Then they go about recreating their American colonies, adding South America to the mix. Eventually the amount of wealth that comes back through the 'rupture' starts to affect what Britain does in the '1700's' side of the 'rupture'.

Holy Crap.. why rule one world when you can have two? :eek:

Krall
September 6th, 2008, 09:49 AM
Britain was in an expansionist phase at the time. I think that the discoverer, or the British government if it became public knowledge, would attempt to exert control over territory beyond the 'rupture'.

Once Britain conquered/assimilated the England of 1187 (perhaps offering Richard I a 1718 British princess and some Dukedoms in 1187 France larger than England) England conquers 1187 France, just because they can. Then they go about recreating their American colonies, adding South America to the mix. Eventually the amount of wealth that comes back through the 'rupture' starts to affect what Britain does in the '1700's' side of the 'rupture'.

Surely you would then enter a paradox of infinitely increasing levels of technology. 1718 tech in 1187 would lead to, say, 2000 level tech in 1718, resulting in 2000 level tech in 1187, resulting in 2300 level tech in 1718 ad infinitum.

I think it would be easier to speculate about the possible consequences of this if we assume that these are two parallel timelines with the rupture as a point of divergence, making both branch off from our timeline.

Cockroach
September 6th, 2008, 10:33 AM
I think it would be easier to speculate about the possible consequences of this if we assume that these are two parallel timelines with the rupture as a point of divergence, making both branch off from our timeline.
We usually do, and I presume we are in this case. I presume the comment in relation to wealth that set this off is about the flow of gold etc. across the Atlantic, into 1187 England and from there into 1718 England.

Redem
September 6th, 2008, 04:05 PM
What about the Crusades?